请问老师这个解析什么意思：A is incorrect. Operational risks typically have a low correlation with other market risk variables so assuming a zero correlation is conservative and an acceptable practice (see p. 276). “Most BHCs were not able to find meaningful correlation between macroeconomic variables and operational-risk loss severity”. Banks can provide correlation estimates between OpRisk and market risk variables with a proper defense, but assuming that op risk and market risk variables are strongly correlated is a cause for concern.

老师，选项B中说 future asset value, 这个从公式本身，或者以往练习题都没有体现啊。并没有像题目说的required,注意这里说的是需要。我们现在做的所有题不都是current market value of asset么? 哪里什么时候需要计算资产未来的价值了？

这道题问的是normalized distance to default，根据KMV讲义，normalized distance to default 分母不是volatility of firm value么。这道题为什么还要乘firm value?

为什么计算流动性VaR的时候不用双尾？其他题目用的都是双尾。

这题为什么用LGD*PD=Spread的公式得不出答案？

这道题到b选项，信用风险在用内部模型法的时候是不是也考虑相关系数了？这也是不是也考虑了分散化啊

请问老师D选项解析什么意思. The controls are assumed to be independent, and given this structure in which multiple controls must fail for an operational loss to occur, the probability of both smaller and larger losses is likely to decrease after the model is implemented.

老师，债券可以通过中央清算所清算？我怎么记得说CCP都是在衍生产品中的

老师，这句话怎么理解market risk (negative equity leaving exposures partially or fully uncollateralized)

Treasury Collateral 是不是GC的其中一種例子？ 這個supply 是指市場上的供應量嗎？還是Borrower 的抵押品數量少了？