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FRM二级
包含FRM二级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
85题选项的credit exposure identified by the counterparty是什么意思,为什么这个不合适 以及答案解析最后一句话,一方违约,为什么就没有信用风险? 信用风险不就是违约的概率吗?
there is a question and hope you can explain. Consider a trader with an investment in a corporate bond with face value of $100,000 and default of 0.5%. Over the next period, we can either have no default, with a return of zeroor default with a loss of $100,000. The payoffs are thus -$100,000 with probability of 0.5% and $0 with a probability of 99.5%. Since the probability of getting %0 is greater than 99%, the VaR at the 99% confidence level is $0 without taking the mean into account. This is consistent with the definition that VaR is the smallest loss, such that the right tail probability is at least 99%. Now consider a portfolio invested in 3 bonds A,B and C with same characters and independent payoffs. The portfolio var at the 99% is A 0. B. $100,000 C. $200,000 D. 300,000. Why the answer is B ? 1. the information already tells us that 99% VaR is $0. So why not $0? 2. as they are independent and undiversified, why not $100,000 + $100,000 +100,000 = $300,000?
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- 老师好,请解答下此题,谢谢。





