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FRM二级

FRM二级

包含FRM二级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;

专场人数:1651提问数量:32269

老师,可以解释一下bifurcations和procyclicality吗

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老师为什么horizon越短越好,不是越长越容易拒绝吗

已回答

老师好,这道题, 老师在计算FIRM支出的金额时,只计算了收益里, 这里不用计算升值贬值的部分吗?

已回答

85题选项的credit exposure identified by the counterparty是什么意思,为什么这个不合适 以及答案解析最后一句话,一方违约,为什么就没有信用风险? 信用风险不就是违约的概率吗?

已回答

百题的64题没有讲,但是我看答案解析很奇怪,他是怎么知道23、5这个price是在3个月后的呢,这个答案我都看不太懂

已回答

there is a question and hope you can explain. Consider a trader with an investment in a corporate bond with face value of $100,000 and default of 0.5%. Over the next period, we can either have no default, with a return of zeroor default with a loss of $100,000. The payoffs are thus -$100,000 with probability of 0.5% and $0 with a probability of 99.5%. Since the probability of getting %0 is greater than 99%, the VaR at the 99% confidence level is $0 without taking the mean into account. This is consistent with the definition that VaR is the smallest loss, such that the right tail probability is at least 99%. Now consider a portfolio invested in 3 bonds A,B and C with same characters and independent payoffs. The portfolio var at the 99% is A 0. B. $100,000 C. $200,000 D. 300,000. Why the answer is B ? 1. the information already tells us that 99% VaR is $0. So why not $0? 2. as they are independent and undiversified, why not $100,000 + $100,000 +100,000 = $300,000?

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老师 习题集155题答案的这倒数三行话是什么意思?

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老师 习题集140题不是选错的么 为什么答案是B

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老师,投资级是快到期的时候违约概率高,投机级是短期时违约概率高。是这样理解吗?

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Q59,题目中不是说Sam with respect to the short option position么?为什么老师讲的Sam是long put呢?

已回答

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