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FRM一级
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习题集的135 页 题目是 What is the main reason why convertible bonds are generally issued with a call? The answer is: to force conversion if in-the-marney 我不太懂后面的解释,the answer does not really explains 请老师讲解 谢谢
已回答老师,图片中的公式不是说利率上升,期货价格上升吗 但是下面这个题目的答案是利率上升使得期货价格下降 A German housing corporation needs to hedge against rising interest rates. It has chosen to use futures on 10-year German government bonds. Which position in the futures should the corporation take, and why? A、Take a long position in the futures because rising interest rates lead to rising futures prices. B、Take a short position in the futures because rising interest rates lead to rising futures prices. C、Take a short position in the futures because rising interest rates lead to declining futures prices. D、Take a long position in the futures because rising interest rates lead to declining futures prices. 答案:C 解析: Government bond futures decline in value when interest rates rise, so the housing corporation should short futures to hedge against rising interest rates.
It is June 2 and a fund manager with USD 10 million invested in government bonds is concerned that interest rates will be highly volatile over the next three months. The manager decides to use the September Treasury bond futures contract to hedge the value of the portfolio. The current futures price is USD 95.0625. Each contract is for the delivery of USD 100,000 face value of bonds. The duration of the manager’s bond portfolio in three months will be 7.8years. The cheapest-to-deliver bond in the Treasury bond futures contract is expected to have a duration of 8.4 years at maturity of the contract. At the maturity of the Treasury bond futures contract, the duration of the underlying benchmark Treasury bond is nine years. What position should the fund manager undertake to mitigate his interest rate risk exposure? A、Short 94 contracts B、Short 96 contracts C、Short 98 contracts D、Short 105 contracts 答案:C 老师,请问这题标的资产的久期为什么用7.8年,而不用9年呢?
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