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CFA二级
包含CFA二级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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请问老师,第二题,跨期替代率为m,之前说的m=P0;expected future price of a risky asset为P1,那么P0=m应该和P1是正的相关性才对啊(因为P0=P1/(1+l+Rp)),为什么答案选A?我的理解哪里有问题?谢谢
An Australia-based fixed-income investment manager is deciding how to allocate herportfolio between Australia and Japan. (As before, the AUD is the domestic currency.)Australia’s one-year deposit rate is 5%, considerably higher than Japan’s at 1%, butthe Australian dollar is estimated to be roughly 10% overvalued relative to the Japaneseyen based on purchasing power parity. Before making her asset allocation, the investmentmanager considers the implications of interest rate differentials and PPP imbalances. 1.All else equal, which of the following events would restore the Australian dollarto its PPP value? A.The Japanese inflation rate increases by 4%. B.The Australian inflation rate decreases by 10%. C.The JPY/AUD exchange rate declines by 10%. 答案为什么选C,希望老师解答下,谢谢
已回答If uncovered interest rate parity holds, today’s expected value for the JPY/GBP currencypair one year from now would be closest to: A.126.02. B.129.67. C.130.05. A is correct. If uncovered interest rate parity holds, then forward rate parity willhold and the expected spot rate one year forward is equal to the one-year forwardexchange rate. This forward rate is calculated in the usual manner, given the spotexchange rates and Libors: Se=F=129.67( 1.001 1.03 )=126.02 为什么说uncovered interest rate parity holds, then forward rate parity willhold?
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