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CFA二级
包含CFA二级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:2418提问数量:55227
官网有个题目, Royappa suggests that the macroeconomic model with supply-side analysis using the Ibbotson–Chen format provides a better estimate for BTP’s risk premium. 公式是: [(1 + EINFL)(1 + EGREPS)(1 + EGPE) − 1] + EINC − Expected risk-free rate 请问Ibbotson–Chen format这个考点哪里? 谢谢 题目是官网的练习题.
已解决老师您好, 这个观点: "Compared with the geometric mean return, the arithmetic mean return is consistent with the assumptions of single period models, such as the CAPM." 答案的解释是: The arithmetic mean return as the average one-period return best represents the mean return in a single period. The major finance models for estimating required return—in particular the CAPM and multifactor models—are single-period models, so the arithmetic mean, with its focus on single-period returns, appears to be a model-consistent choice. 请您解释下, 谢谢!
已解决a company’s sustainable growth rate assumes growth through internally generated funds and approximates the average rate at which dividends can grow over a long horizon. 老师您好,请您解释一下,上面说的. Internally generated funds.这个为什么是用内部资金呢?
已解决1. The best way to value private companies in a high growth stage is to use a free cash flow method. 2. Asset-based approaches are best for start-ups. 3. Market-based approaches are best for mature companies. 请老师解释下为什么,谢谢!
已解决精品问答
- 这题为什么是选C?
- 老师,第二题可以在解释一下原理吗?
- CDS的long和short是不是反过来的?就是long CDS代表看涨目标公司credit,所以是卖出一份CDS合约?
- 为啥accrued interest over contract life是0?
- 老師您好,Q1關於future price不太理解
- 这个1.0028的单位是什么 老师说“每一块钱SF的现值” 如果是*1.12 就是期初先 euro 转 sf 然后 期末再 /1.1 就是 sf 转 euro ?
- 第六题,视频老师说,对于汇率都是先除老汇率再乘新汇率,不应该吧,对于这个客户而言,因为“paying €1 million at inception.“得出该客户是未来每期是收欧元利息和欧元本金,支瑞士法郎利息和本金。所以期初是每一欧元换1.12瑞士法郎用的是乘呀,估值时的汇率1.1用除。老师帮忙看看逻辑正确不?
- 请老师讲解一下这个题目
