-
CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:6029提问数量:108645
05.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 A bond with a semi-annually coupon rate of 3% sells for $850. It has a modified duration of 10 and is priced at a yield to maturity (YTM) of 8.5%. If the YTM increases to 9.5%, the predicted change in price, using the duration concept decreases by: A $85.00. B $77.56. C $79.92. 查看解析 上一题 提交试卷 正确答案A 您的答案B本题平均正确率:80% Different types of Duration难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Approximate price change of a bond = (-)(duration)(Δy) P = -10(9.5% - 8.5%)$850 = (-0.1) ($850) = -$85 问:这里的价格为什么用原始价格,这里套公式没问题,但是问题是用哪个P搞不清楚,老师可否说的明白一些,让我好理解?
查看试题 已回答03.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Which of the following statements about duration is most accurate? A Effective duration accounts for changes in a bond’s cash flows resulting from interest rate changes. B Modified duration is the most appropriate measure of interest rate sensitivity for bonds with embedded options. C Effective duration is calculated from past price changes in response to changes in yield. A 答案解析 Neither Macaulay nor modified duration is an appropriate measure of interest rate risk for bonds with embedded options. Macaulay duration does not take the current YTM into account as modified duration does. Effective duration, however, explicitly takes into account changes in a bond’s cash flows due to interest rate changes and is calculated from expected price changes in response to a given increase or decrease in yield. 问:记得不是说 effective duration是 从市场上找来的 V- 和 V+,所以为什么C说是expected cash flow,这里的现金流到底是预估的还找来的?
查看试题 已回答老师,请问一下。 资本化以后,是不是以后每年都有由于折旧摊销带来的CFI流出? 而费用话一次性确认为CFO流出,后续几年不会有CFI流出。这么一来,in the future从第二年开始,相比于费用话,资本化的CFI流出更多,所以会有一个相对更低的CFI,那么B选项为什么不对,请老师指导!
查看试题 已回答02.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Why should effective duration, rather than modified duration, be used when bonds contain embedded options? A Effective duration considers expected changes in cash flows. B Modified duration considers expected changes in cash flows. C Either could be used if the bond has embedded options. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:81% Different types of Duration难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Modified duration assumes that the cash flows on the bond will not change (i.e., that we are dealing with non-callable bonds). This greatly differs from effective duration, which considers expected changes in cash flows that may occur for bonds with embedded options. 问:1.为什么一说到 有效久期 和 就是含权债券的关系?2.以及为什么有效久期 就和 预期现金流有关系?这里基础课感觉讲的也不太清楚,能否简单说明 有效久期的来龙去脉,至少这个久期是干嘛使的,为什么要有它呢
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
