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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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According to the following statements about auto loan Receivable-backed securities, which statement is not correct? A A subprime loan is one granted to borrowers with higher credit quality. B The purpose of a reserve account is to provide internal credit enhancement C Overcollateralization means that the aggregate principle balance of the automobile loan contracts exceeds the principle balance of the notes. 这题c也不对吧,怎么能说贷款本金大于note的就是过度抵押呢?应该说是抵押物value大于note才对吧,a的话如果有比他层级更低的话他就是比较好的吧
查看试题 已回答According to the following statements, which statement is correct? A CMBS are securities backed by a pool of commercial mortgage loans on capital-gain-producing property. B The characteristic of call protection of CMBS makes CMBS to trade in the market more like corporate bonds than RMBS. C The call protection of CMBS has two forms: at the structure level and at the loan level. a和c为什么不对?
查看试题 已回答Which of the following embedded options most likely benefits the bondholder? A Prepayment option on an amortizing security. B Put provision at par on a bond that is trading at a premium. C Interest rate cap on a floating-rate bond. b目前选项,目前trading已经premium了,put at par对holder来说就不是好处了吧
查看试题 已回答How does the convexity of a bond influence the yield on the bond? All else the same, for a bond with high convexity investors will require: A a higher or lower yield depending on the bond's duration. B a lower yield. C a higher yield. 什么原理呢?
查看试题 已回答If the current two-year spot rate is 6% while the one-year forward rate for one year is 5%, what is the current spot rate for one year? A 5.5%. B 5.0%. C 7.0%. 这题公式有点看不明白
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 是不是只有在市场均衡点,才是社会总福利不损失的点? 偏离市场均衡点,社会总福利都会损失? 因为要么生产过剩,要么就是总供给不足. 另外,为什么只有在完全竞争市场中才能实现社会总福利最优,才能有市场均衡点? 在其他各类市场中,不是需求供给需求也是有的吗?他们的均衡点难道不是市场均衡点吗? 在那个点声场不是可以实现社会总福利最优吗? 这点不是很清楚,老师可以画图说明下. 另外, 对于一级价格歧视这种,它又是怎么实现社会总福利不损失的,这时候的需求曲线和供给曲线是什么样的?和完全竞争市场不同吗
