A $1000 par corporate bond carries a coupon rate of 6%, pays coupons semiannually, and has ten coupon payments remaining to maturity. Market rates are currently 5%. There are 90 days between settlement and the next coupon payment. The dirty and clean prices of the bond are closest to: A. 1043.76, 1013.76 B. 1043.76, 1028.76 C.1056.73, 1041.73 D.1069.7, 1054.7 在第10期贴现回去那段不太明白，PV=1043.76. 1043.76*1.025(1/2)=1056.73 为什么不是1043.76/1.025（1/2）呢？ 请老师解释下乘除号在这道题目里面的分别，谢谢

老师您好。haircut越低才说明抵押品质量越好吧？比如在金融危机中，很多haircut都达到了100%了

怎么理解? 谢谢老师!

写错了吧? 应该是P1 ??? 谢谢老师!

对于optimal portfolio而言，资产的权重之比是不是要和excess return-Marginal VaR ratio之比相一致?

如何理解C

老师，这里为什么euro interest rate 是下降才是in the money

D选项：初始保证金不是考虑是否违约嘛？那难道不应该考虑信用情况？

D选项中的0.33是怎么算出来的?

The standard VaR calculation for extension to multiple periods assumes that returns are serially uncorrelated. If prices display trends, the true VaR will be: A. The same as the standard VaR. B. Greater than the standard VaR. C. Less than the standard VaR. D. Unable to be determined. 没有想明白这道题，请老师再解释一下