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CFA问答
CFA问答包含CFA在线课程、CFA通关课程、CFA试题等所有CFA相关问题,每个问题老师均会在24小时内给出答疑回复哦!
老师您好! 讲义次页做后两行的公式该怎么理解? 1、为什么要par amount 乘以partial PVBP ? 2、为什么要乘以100?因为我的理解是partial PVBP本身就是per100呀?应该除以100才对吧?为什么不除以100? 感谢!
Money duration can be stated per 100 of par value or in terms of the bond’s actual position size in the portfolio. (Institute 132) Institute, CFA. 2019 CFA Program Curriculum Level III Volume 4. CFA Institute, 5/2018. VitalBook file. 老师您好! 教材中的这句话该怎么理解? 如果par value是6000,price是6100,modified duration是8,那此处的per 100的money duration怎么计算呢? 非常感谢!
已回答A closely related risk measure is the present value of a basis point (PVBP), also called the PV01 (present value of an “01”, meaning 1 bp) and, in North America, the DV01 (dollar value of an “01”). (Institute 66) Institute, CFA. 2019 CFA Program Curriculum Level III Volume 4. CFA Institute, 5/2018. VitalBook file. 老师您好! 请问教材中这句话如何理解?为啥是closely?***老师说PVBP就是BPV呀? 如果这两个有区别,区别在哪里?能否用公式给演示一下? 非常感谢!
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