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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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The manager of the Fullen Balanced Fund is putting together a report that breaks out the percentage of the variation in portfolio return that is explained by the target asset allocation, security selection, and tactical variations from the target, respectively. Which of the following sets of numbers was the most likely conclusion for the report? A 50%, 25%, 25%. B 90%, 6%, 4%. C 33%, 33%, 33%. 这题说啥呢?
查看试题 已回答Which of the following ratios would least likely measure liquidity? A Return on assets (ROA). B Quick ratio. C Current ratio. 这题不会吧?b和c才是衡量流动性的呀
查看试题 已回答For a stock that pays no dividends, the value of an American call option is most likely: A the same as the value of a European call option with otherwise identical features. B greater than the value of a European call option with otherwise identical features. C less than the value of a European call option with otherwise identical features. 为什么价格差异只看分红呢?
查看试题 已回答If three bonds are otherwise identical, the one exhibiting the highest level of positive convexity is most likely the one that is: A Putable. B Callable. C Option-free. 这题答案对吗?印象中是原版书课后习题,但是原版书答案不是这个
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 那么股票的公允价值是不是交易价格? 既不和市场价值一样,也不和账面价值一样?
- 场内和场外OTC市场 与 公募和私募 是一样的吗? 那么一级市场和二级市场是不是都有场内和场外一说?
- 问下, Cryptocurrencies加密货币 与 Tokens代币 都是数字资产,那么区别本质是什么
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?