-
CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:5895提问数量:107030
Assume a firm uses a constant WACC to select investment projects rather than adjusting the projects for risk. If so, the firm will tend to: A Accept profitable, low-risk projects and accept unprofitable, high-risk projects. B Reject profitable, low-risk projects and accept unprofitable, high-risk projects. C Accept profitable, low-risk projects and reject unprofitable, high-risk projects. 这题什么道理?
查看试题 已回答The term that describes when inflation declines but nonetheless remains at a positive level is: A deflation. B stagflation. C disinflation. 这题选c?不太明白
查看试题 已回答Which of the following is not an embedded option that benefits the bondholder? A A floor on a floater. B A conversion privilege. C An accelerated sinking fund provision. 这题选c牵强吧, sinking fund就对holder没好处?
查看试题 已回答The sampling error is best described as the: A Sum of squared deviations from the mean divided by the sample size minus one. B Difference between the observed value of a statistic and the quantity it is intended to estimate. C Sample standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size c也对吧?
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 那么股票的公允价值是不是交易价格? 既不和市场价值一样,也不和账面价值一样?
- 场内和场外OTC市场 与 公募和私募 是一样的吗? 那么一级市场和二级市场是不是都有场内和场外一说?
- 问下, Cryptocurrencies加密货币 与 Tokens代币 都是数字资产,那么区别本质是什么
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?