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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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As a result of a change in strategy to selling differentiated products at premium prices, a company's gross margin ratio increased by 5 percentage points (i.e., from 35 percent to 40 percent). The most likely effect on the company's operating margin ratio as a result of the changes in strategy would be an increase? A equal to 5%. B less than 5%. C greater than 5%. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A 请问SG&A中 含广告费和R&d费用吗?
查看试题 已回答Assume a firm with a debt to equity ratio of 0.50 and debt equal to $35 million. It makes a commitment to acquire raw materials with a present value of $12 million over the next 3 years. For purposes of analysis, the best estimate of the debt to equity ratio should be: A 0.500. B 0.573. C 0.671. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案A本题平均正确率:50% The original debt / equity ratio = 35 / 70 = 0.5. Now adjust the numerator but not the denominator. Why? You have commitments (liabilities) but no new equity because (non-current) liabilities and assets are increased by the same amount. D/E = (35 + 12) / 70 = 0.671. 请问:这12M应该是A/P吧,而AP是不计利息的,算L,但是不算在DEBT里面,所以理论上比值应该保持不变?
查看试题 已回答The following footnote appeared in Crabtree Company's 20X7 annual reports: "On December 31, 20X7, Crabtree recognized a restructuring charge of $20 million, of which $5 million was for severance pay for employees who will be terminated in 20X8 and $15 million was for land that became permanently impaired in 20X7." Based only on these changes, Crabtree's net profit margin and fixed asset turnover ratio (using year-end financial statement values) in 20X8 as compared to 20X7 will be: A Higher for net profit margin; higher for fixed asset turnover. B Higher for net profit margin; unchanged for fixed asset turnover. C Lower for net profit margin; higher for fixed asset turnover. B The restructuring charge and asset write-down are non-recurring transactions; thus, net income will be higher in 20X8, all else equal. 请问此题中 究竟是20M的总重组费还是5M的解雇费影响NI?
查看试题 已回答就是因为资不抵债才没法严格按照顺序来啊,如果清算时资产价值完全是充足的,该拿多少,拿多少,都够,那还会有人去纠结这个顺序吗?而对于所谓优先权的妥协,那是没办法啊,为了可以顺利处置必须达成一致,那这不是造成顺序不能被完美执行的原因吧,原因那肯定是不够分啊,是实际中要照顾各方利益啊,这题逻辑不太通啊。
查看试题 已回答Given the following spot and forward rates, how much should an investor pay for each $100 of a 3-year, annual zero-coupon bond? One-year spot rate is 3.75% The 1-year forward rate 1 year from today is 9.50% The 1-year forward rate 2 years from today is 15.80% The investor should pay approximately: 这道题的计算过程麻烦讲解下
查看试题 已解决请问老师,题目中说道,dividends paid属于Financing activity,而且题目中的意思是付出去的dividends 是10 million,在课件中也是属于Cash Flow from Financing Activity。为什么在计算中要加上10呢?
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 是不是只有在市场均衡点,才是社会总福利不损失的点? 偏离市场均衡点,社会总福利都会损失? 因为要么生产过剩,要么就是总供给不足. 另外,为什么只有在完全竞争市场中才能实现社会总福利最优,才能有市场均衡点? 在其他各类市场中,不是需求供给需求也是有的吗?他们的均衡点难道不是市场均衡点吗? 在那个点声场不是可以实现社会总福利最优吗? 这点不是很清楚,老师可以画图说明下. 另外, 对于一级价格歧视这种,它又是怎么实现社会总福利不损失的,这时候的需求曲线和供给曲线是什么样的?和完全竞争市场不同吗
