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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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01.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 A price earnings ratio that is derived from the Gordon growth model is inversely related to the: A Growth rate. B Dividend payout ratio. C Required rate of return. 查看解析 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案A本题平均正确率:60% Price multiples难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The justified forward P/E is calculated as follows: P0/E1=payout rate/(r-g) P/E is inversely related to the required rate of return, r, and directly related to the growth rate, g, and the dividend payout ratio, D/E. 问:哪里说用 forward了?为什么不是training?
查看试题 已回答13.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Which of the following model is the best to use when valuing a voting dividend-paying company that is just entering the growth phase? A Gordon growth model. B Two-stage dividend discount model. C Three-stage dividend discount model. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案A本题平均正确率:43% DCF models难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The Gordon growth model is best suited to valuing mature companies. The two-stage model is best for companies that are transitioning from a growth stage to a mature stage. The three-stage model is appropriate for young companies just entering the growth phase. 问:“valuing a voting dividend-paying company”怎么翻译,题干是什么意思?
查看试题 已回答09.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Which of the following statements is least accurate? A A firm’s free cash flow to equity is significantly affected by the amount of dividends paid by the firm. B A firm’s free cash flow to equity is a measure of the firm’s dividend-paying capacity. C A firm’s free cash flow to equity increases with an increase in the firm’s net borrowing. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案C本题平均正确率:39% DCF models难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Dividends, a discretionary cash flow from financing activities, have no bearing on a firm’s free cash flow to equity, as can be seen from the formula: FCFE = CFO – FCInv + Net borrowing. 问:能否把FCFE 贴现估值的意思简单说说,股利贴现好理解,这个不太明白为什么可以拿来估值?
查看试题 已回答An analyst gathers the following data to determine the attractiveness of the company’s common stock: 这句话中的 attractiveness怎么翻译?
查看试题 已回答精品问答
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- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?


