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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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21.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Assume an option-free 5% coupon bond with annual coupon payments has two years remaining to maturity. A putable bond that is the same in every respect as the option-free bond is priced at 101.76. With the term structure flat at 6% what is the value of the embedded put option? A 1.76. B 3.59. C -3.59. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:62% Callable bond and putable bond难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The value of the embedded put option of the putable bond is the difference between the price of the putable bond and the price of the option-free bond. The value of the option-free bond is computed as follows: PMT = 5; N = 2; FV = 100; I = 6; CPT → PV = -98.17(ignore sign). The option value = 101.76 - 98.17 = 3.59 问:V putable= V free + V option这是公式吧,所以感觉带入的不对啊,它怎么把free的带到了公式左边?
查看试题 已回答16.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Which of the following is the benefit of issuing bonds through a special purpose vehicle? A Bankruptcy remoteness. B Beneficial tax treatments. C Greater liquidity and lower issuing costs. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:92% Legal information难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 A SPV is a bankruptcy-remote vehicle. Bankruptcy remoteness is achieved by transferring the assets from the sponsor to the SPV. Once this transfer is completed, the sponsor no longer has ownership rights. If the sponsor defaults, no claims can be made to recover the assets that were transferred or the proceeds from the transfer to the SPV. 问:这里说的破产隔离是对谁的好处,哪个主体,银行,投资人还是spv?
查看试题 已回答11.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Consider a floating rate issue that has a coupon rate that is reset on January 1 of each year. The coupon rate is defined as one-year London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) + 125 basis points and the coupons are paid semi-annually. If the one-year LIBOR is 6.5% on January 1, which of the following is the semi-annual coupon payment received by the holder of the issue in that year: A 3.875%. B 3.250%. C 7.750%. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:70% Coupon payment structures难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 This value is computed as follows: Semi-annual coupon = (LIBOR + 125 basis points) / 2 = 3.875% 问:解析被删,求详细解释?
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- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?

