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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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An investor gathers the following data. To estimate the stock's justified forward P/E, the investor prefers to use: The earnings growth rate rather than the dividends growth rate and The average of the payout ratios over the relevant period, in this case 2010-2013, rather the most recent payout ratio. The yield on 10-year T-notes is 3 percent and the current equity risk premium is 6.5 percent. If beta is 1.3, then the stock's justified forward P/E is closest to: 您好,这道题我看了答案解析,从2010-2013年 计算增长,为什么不是4次方而是3次方,这个点是我不理解的地方,
Which of the following security market will result in highest arbitrage activity? A Market efficiency. B With no restrictions on short selling. C With high information-acquisition costs. C为啥不选
查看试题 已回答27.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 A trader buys 500 shares of a stock on margin at $36 a share using an initial leverage ratio of 1.66. The maintenance margin requirement for the position is 30%. The stock price at which the margin call will occur is closest to: A $20.57. B $30.86. C $25.20. 老师您好,这个题不太明白,麻烦解析下,第一步initial equity in margin 为什么是1/1.66,z再就是后面的解析,多谢
查看试题 已回答01.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 A closed-end fund is trading at a premium to its net asset value. This scenario most likely reflects: A excess demand for redemption of the shares. B concerns about the quality of management. C a belief that the portfolio securities are undervalued. 麻烦解答下这道题
查看试题 已回答22.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Pierre-Louis Robert just purchased a call option on shares of the Michelin Group. A few days ago he wrote a put option on Michelin shares. The call and put options have the same exercise price, expiration date, and number of shares underlying. Considering both positions, Robert’s exposure to the risk of the stock of the Michelin Group is: A long. B short. C neutral. 麻烦讲解下,不懂 谢谢老师
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- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?




