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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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01.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 According to put-call-forward parity, the difference between the price of a put and the price of a call is most likely equal to the difference between: A spot price and exercise price discounted at the risk-free rate. B exercise price and forward price discounted at the risk-free rate. C forward price and spot price discounted at the risk-free rate. 听不清楚
查看试题 已解决A put option with an exercise price of 80 will expire in 73 days. No cash payments will be made by the underlying asset over the life of the option. If the underlying asset is at 75 and the risk-free rate of return is 5.0 percent, what are the lower bounds for an American put option and a European put option, respectively, closest to: A for an American put option is 4.22; for a European put option is 5.00. B for an American put option is 5; for a European put option is 4.22. C for an American put option is 4.22; for a European put option is 4.22. 这个题解答下
查看试题 已回答01.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 A call option with a strike price of 60 will expire in 80 days. No cash payments will be made by the underlying asset over the life of the option. If the underlying asset price is 70 and the risk-free rate of return is 5.0 percent, the lower bound for an American call option and a European call option, respectively, are closest to A the lower bound for an American call option is 10; the lower bound for a European call option is 10.64. B the lower bound for an American call option is 10.64; the lower bound for a European call option is 10. C the lower bound for an American call option is 10.64; the lower bound for a European call option is 10.64. 这个题啥也听不见,麻烦老师讲解
查看试题 已解决At expiration, a European put option will be valuable if the exercise price is: A less than the underlying price. B equal to the underlying price. C greater than the underlying price.这个题不理解
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- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 是不是只有在市场均衡点,才是社会总福利不损失的点? 偏离市场均衡点,社会总福利都会损失? 因为要么生产过剩,要么就是总供给不足. 另外,为什么只有在完全竞争市场中才能实现社会总福利最优,才能有市场均衡点? 在其他各类市场中,不是需求供给需求也是有的吗?他们的均衡点难道不是市场均衡点吗? 在那个点声场不是可以实现社会总福利最优吗? 这点不是很清楚,老师可以画图说明下. 另外, 对于一级价格歧视这种,它又是怎么实现社会总福利不损失的,这时候的需求曲线和供给曲线是什么样的?和完全竞争市场不同吗
