在2302CFA一级经典题财报M8第九题中，我是不是可以这样理解：在第一年财报期初，企业购买了PP&E，随后在年底进行折旧？谢谢

28分时的2.47怎么算出来的？

Module 6-书（2022-L1V2）P357-（1）最后一段，It now exports 80 thousand yards of cloth to the United Kingdom and imports 80 machines from the United Kingdom. 这里的80 thousand yards of cloth以及80 machines 是怎么得出的？是随便给的数据？（2）最后一段，最后一句话，这个P*点是Exhibit 9 Panel B中的哪个点？图中P*这个点大约是22,000 cloth 与130 machines, 但是最后一段最后一句话中，P*代表的是80 thousand yards 以及80 machines?

Module 6-书（2022-L1V2）P357-（1）这句话没有明白，The shape of the PPF indicates increasing opportunity cost in terms of machines as more cloth is produced and vice versa. 我看下来，随着布料产量的增加，切线越来越平缓，难道不应该是斜率越来越小了吗？（2）这句话，也没有明白，The United Kingdom consumes at point E after trade, exports 80 machines to India and imports 80 thousand yards of cloth from India. 请问这里的两个80，是随便给出的？

PSA是什么的缩写，怎么得到的？

Q33, why the smaller companies cut price will leave the market?

Q.30, 能淺白解釋一下option c?

Module 6-书（2022-L1V2）P356-下面截图中标黄部分，为什么说当中那列post-trade consumption是after trade begins with India后的数据？这列数据，不就是解释了“The United Kingdom exports 160 machines to India in exchange for 640 yards of cloth.”的变动过程吗？请问，最后一列 change in consumption +40，+240，+60，+160是随机给出的数？

Q26, does it mean the firm production is overproduction when MC >MR?

Module 6-书（2022-L1V2）P355-最后一段-For example, if the United Kingdom was able to sell a machine to India for 7 yards of cloth (i.e., closer to India’s autarkic price), it would gain 5 yards of cloth per machine sold to India compared with its own autarkic price (with no trade) of 1 machine for 2 yards of cloth. However, if the United Kingdom was able to sell a machine to India for only 3 yards of cloth (closer to the UK autarkic price), it would gain only 1 yard of cloth per machine sold to India compared with its own autarkic price. （1）第一句话中的7 yards of cloth为什么是接近印度的autarkic price的? 自给自足的价格是什么定义，怎么确定的？（2）为什么会取得5 yards的收益？（3）compared with its own autarkic price (with no trade) of 1 machine for 2 yards of cloth. 这组数据又是怎么得出的？为什么它自身的autarkic price指的是no trade? (4) 1 yard的收益，又是怎么得出的？