YL2023-07-06 21:28:20
Module 6-书(2022-L1V2)P355-最后一段-For example, if the United Kingdom was able to sell a machine to India for 7 yards of cloth (i.e., closer to India’s autarkic price), it would gain 5 yards of cloth per machine sold to India compared with its own autarkic price (with no trade) of 1 machine for 2 yards of cloth. However, if the United Kingdom was able to sell a machine to India for only 3 yards of cloth (closer to the UK autarkic price), it would gain only 1 yard of cloth per machine sold to India compared with its own autarkic price. (1)第一句话中的7 yards of cloth为什么是接近印度的autarkic price的? 自给自足的价格是什么定义,怎么确定的?(2)为什么会取得5 yards的收益?(3)compared with its own autarkic price (with no trade) of 1 machine for 2 yards of cloth. 这组数据又是怎么得出的?为什么它自身的autarkic price指的是no trade? (4) 1 yard的收益,又是怎么得出的?
回答(1)
Alex2023-07-07 10:23:38
你好同学
在印度一台机器要8尺布(2:16),这里题干只是举了一个例子,如果英国卖给印度一台机器只要7尺布,肯定能卖出去。在英国自己那一台机器能换2尺布(4:8),那么利润不就是7-2=5么。
对的autarkic price就是没有国外交易的价格。
如果英国卖给印度一台机器只要3尺布,那么利润就是3-2=1尺布
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