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高云老师的强化段,第4集视频的末尾,市场风险的末尾 简单讲了一下 汇率风险,然后列出来 抛补利率平价理论和对应的公式。这个公式的形式,看起来跟科目3的外汇期货的定价公式几乎一模一样,唯独R(XXX) 和 R(YYY) 的上下位置正相反。 我认为 这两个公式的内涵是完全一样的意思,为什么公式的 分子分母 正好相反呢?? XXX 和YYY, 哪个是本币,哪个是外币呢? 梁老师讲的是 本币在上(分子),外币在下(分母), 高云老师讲的 正相反,这是怎么回事呢?
there is a question and hope you can explain. Consider a trader with an investment in a corporate bond with face value of $100,000 and default of 0.5%. Over the next period, we can either have no default, with a return of zeroor default with a loss of $100,000. The payoffs are thus -$100,000 with probability of 0.5% and $0 with a probability of 99.5%. Since the probability of getting %0 is greater than 99%, the VaR at the 99% confidence level is $0 without taking the mean into account. This is consistent with the definition that VaR is the smallest loss, such that the right tail probability is at least 99%. Now consider a portfolio invested in 3 bonds A,B and C with same characters and independent payoffs. The portfolio var at the 99% is A 0. B. $100,000 C. $200,000 D. 300,000. Why the answer is B ? 1. the information already tells us that 99% VaR is $0. So why not $0? 2. as they are independent and undiversified, why not $100,000 + $100,000 +100,000 = $300,000?
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