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CFA一级
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What is a major problem with long-term cycle theories? A The sample size is small. B The data are usually hard to observe. C They occur over such a long period that they are difficult to discern. 查看解析 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:28% 难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Long-term cycles require many years to complete; thus, not many cycles are available to observe. 请问:C在说什么?能否举例说明
查看试题 已回答A head and shoulders pattern is most likely to precede a reversal in trend if: A The left shoulder, the head, and the right shoulder occur on increasing volume. B Volume decreases between the left shoulder and the head, then increases between the head and the right shoulder. C The left shoulder, the head, and the right shoulder occur on decreasing volume. 查看解析 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案A本题平均正确率:48% Common chart patterns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Decreasing volume on each of the high prices in a head and shoulders pattern (or each of the low prices in an inverse head and shoulders) suggests weakening in the supply and demand forces that were driving the price trend. 请问:A head and shoulders pattern is most likely to precede a reversal in trend if 这题的题干怎么翻译啊?precede是什么意思?结合小视频看不懂,能否进一步解释?
查看试题 已回答If the probability that fail to reject the null hypothesis when it actually false increases, how about the confidence level? A Increase. B Decrease. C No change. 查看解析 上一题 提交试卷 正确答案A 您的答案B本题平均正确率:52% Type I error and Type II error难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 When the probability of Type II error increase, the probability of Type I error will decrease, which means that the significance level (α) will decrease. The confidence level = 1- significance level. Therefore, the confidence level will increase. 请问: confidence level 是中间区域的面积是概率的概念对吗? confidence level 的宽度才是2倍的1.96(这里是举例)?
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- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?


