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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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a hedge fund has the following fee structure annual management fee based on year-end AUM 2% incentive fee 20% hurdle rate before incentive fee collection starts 4% current high-water mark 610 million the fund has a value of $ 583.1 million at the beginning of the year.after one year,it has a value of $642 million before fees.the net return to an investor for this year is closest to A 6.72% B 6.80% C 7.64 老师,high water 这块的计算没理解,为什么要610*(1+4%),为什么还要是1+4%
查看试题 已回答a country with a persistent trade surplus is being pressured to let its currency appreciate,which of the following best describes the adjustment that must occur if currency appreciation is to be effective in reducing the trade surplus A domestic investment must decline relative to saving B foreigners must increase investment relative to saving C global capical flows must shift toward the domestic market
查看试题 已回答in practice,both a fixed parity regime and a target zone regime allow the exchange rate to float within a band around the parity level.the most likely rationale for the band is that the band allows the monetary authority to A be less active in the currency market B earn a spread on its currenty transactions c exercise more discretion in monetary policy
查看试题 已回答Fiscal policy is typically expansionary, while monetary policy is typically contractionary. 这个错在哪里呢?
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- Effective duration和Effective convexiy的公式为什么不用modified duration和convexity的原本公式,而是和他们的近似的久期和突性的公式一致?
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切

