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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:6087提问数量:109968
老师好! In a strategic asset allocation, assets within a specific asset class are least likely to have: A. low paired correlations; B. low correlation with other asset classes; C. similiar risk and return expectations 答案是A。麻烦老师再讲解一下战略资产分配,谢谢!
已回答老师好! When constructing the optimal portfolios for investors with different risk preferences, the investor with high risk aversion is most likely to have a: A. steeper capital allocation line; B. flatter indiggerence curve; C. lower expected return 答案是C,麻烦老师讲解一下,谢谢!
已回答老师好!题目如下: If investors borrow at a rate exceed the risk-free lending rate, the resulting borrowing portfolio will: A, plot on a flatter line; B, plot on a steeper line; C, no longer plot on a straight line 答案是A,麻烦老师讲解,谢谢!
已回答老师好!题目如下: As one moves to the right along an investor's EF, a set increase in risk is most likely to lead to: A. sequentially larger increases in expected return; B. consistent increases in expected return; C. sequentially smaller increases in expected return. 答案是C,麻烦老师讲解,谢谢!
已回答老师好!题目如下: Risk-averse investors who invest in risk-free assets will have a numerical utility that is: A. same as risk-seeking averse; B. higher than risk-averse investor; C. higher than risk-neutral investor; 答案是A,麻烦老师讲解,谢谢!
已回答老师好!题目如下: Relative to an investor with a steeper indifference curve, the optimal portfolio for an investor with a flatter indifference curve will most likely have: A. a lower level of risk and return; B. a higher level of risk and return; C. the same level of risk and return 答案是B,麻烦老师讲解,谢谢!
已回答精品问答
- Effective duration和Effective convexiy的公式为什么不用modified duration和convexity的原本公式,而是和他们的近似的久期和突性的公式一致?
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?




