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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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老师您好,原版书equity 72页第36题 A financial analyst is examining whether a country's financial market is well functioning. She finds that the transaction costs in this market are low and trading volumes are high. She concludes that the market is quite liquid. In such a market: A. traders will find it hard to make use of their information B. traders will find it easy to trade and their trading will make the market less informationally efficient. C. traders will find it easy to trade and their trading will make the market more informationally efficient. 答案是c,请老师帮忙解释一下,谢谢~
已回答老师您好,原版书equity 68页第18题 Pierre-Louis Robert just purchased a call option on shares of the Michelin Group. A few days ago he wrote a put option on Michelin shares. The call and put options have the same exercise price, expiration date, and number of shares underlying. Considering both positions, Robert's exposure to the risk of the stock of the Michelin Group is : A. long B. short C. neutral 答案是a,请您帮忙解释一下,另外这个知识点是哪个呢?
已回答trading放进retained earning 不是么?retained earning不是在balance sheet 中的equity中么,这里为什么他的unrealized g/l要给列进income statement里啊?还有后面这道例题,老师说如果这里的AFS如果试问realized g/l放在哪儿,realized g/l肯定都放I/S里面啊,那老师说放在retained earning 里是几个意思?retained earning是资产负债表里equity的科目啊????
原版教材P481-485。 第6题。为何选C?时间未定或金额未定,不是应该直接计入equity么? 第8题。为何选C?由于支出导致tax credit,不是DTA么?为什么选C?应该是什么? 第19题。我用这个公式:income tax=cash tax payment △DTL-△DTA。👉income tax=cash tax payment (-32639--39040)-(18851-16917)👉income tax=cash tax payment 6401-1934👉income tax=cash tax payment 4467,说明income tax>cash tax payment,应该选A啊? 第20题。看答案我没看懂。-329412是亏损额,从而导致112000的DTA。为什么-329412-227000=-556412?-329412是EBT是亏损额(不是税,-112000是他对应的税),227000是税,一个是EBT,一个是税,这两个怎么能相减?
已回答精品问答
- Effective duration和Effective convexiy的公式为什么不用modified duration和convexity的原本公式,而是和他们的近似的久期和突性的公式一致?
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?





