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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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The following footnote appeared in Crabtree Company's 20X7 annual reports: "On December 31, 20X7, Crabtree recognized a restructuring charge of $20 million, of which $5 million was for severance pay for employees who will be terminated in 20X8 and $15 million was for land that became permanently impaired in 20X7." Based only on these changes, Crabtree's net profit margin and fixed asset turnover ratio (using year-end financial statement values) in 20X8 as compared to 20X7 will be: A Higher for net profit margin; higher for fixed asset turnover. B Higher for net profit margin; unchanged for fixed asset turnover. C Lower for net profit margin; higher for fixed asset turnover. B The restructuring charge and asset write-down are non-recurring transactions; thus, net income will be higher in 20X8, all else equal. 请问此题中 究竟是20M的总重组费还是5M的解雇费影响NI?
查看试题 已回答13. Comte Industries issues $3,000,000 worth of three-year bonds dated 1 January 2015. The bonds pay interest of 5.5% annually on 31 December. The market interest rate on bonds of comparable risk and term is 5%. The sales proceeds of the bonds are $3,040,849. Under the straight-line method, the interest expense in the first year is closest to: A. $150,000. B. $151,384. C. $152,042. 老师,这题我怎么算得,要选C,而答案却要选B呢?麻烦帮忙讲解一下:the straight-line method;Amortized cost method;Effective interest rate method,这三种方法的区别和相同之处呢?
已回答12. For a bond issued at a premium, using the effective interest rate method, the: A. carrying amount increases each year. B. amortization of the premium increases each year. C. premium is evenly amortized over the life of the bond. 老师这道题,我怎么觉得carrying amount,amortization of the premium这两项都是逐年递减的,而C答案说的是平价债券,怎么感觉都没有正确答案呢?麻烦讲解一下。
已回答10. A company issues $30,000,000 face value of five-year bonds dated 1 January 2015 when the market interest rate on bonds of comparable risk and terms is 5%. The bonds pay 4% interest annually on 31 December. Based on the effective interest rate method, the carrying amount of the bonds on 31 December 2015 is closest to: A. $28,466,099. B. $28,800,000. C. $28,936,215. 老师,麻烦讲解一下这道题,我怎么算不出选项中的答案呀,麻烦附一下解题过程。谢谢。
已回答就是因为资不抵债才没法严格按照顺序来啊,如果清算时资产价值完全是充足的,该拿多少,拿多少,都够,那还会有人去纠结这个顺序吗?而对于所谓优先权的妥协,那是没办法啊,为了可以顺利处置必须达成一致,那这不是造成顺序不能被完美执行的原因吧,原因那肯定是不够分啊,是实际中要照顾各方利益啊,这题逻辑不太通啊。
查看试题 已回答精品问答
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- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?





