
-
CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:6087提问数量:109968
老师你好,原版书512页第5题,读不懂题目啊, Forty percent of the companies to which the test is administered will go bankrupt within 12 months: P(nonsurvivor) = 0.40. Fifty-five percent of the companies to which the test is administered pass it: P(pass test) = 0.55. 第一句话是说测试出来有40%的公司会在接下来的12个月内破产; 第二句话是说有55%的公司被测试出通过了这个标准, 既然这两个事件都是测试出来的结果,那么为什么这两个事件的概率之和不等于1呢?
07.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 The household sector has increased the fraction of disposable income that it saves because real estate values declines sharply. Which of the following is most(correct response supposing that output and investment spending remain unchanged? A A decrease in net exports and increased capital inflow. B An increase in net exports and increased capital outflow. C A decrease in the government deficit. 查看解析 上一题 提交试卷 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:58% GDP calculation难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 问:这道题我懂怎么做,我的问题是:假设output and investment这里的output有什么含义,好多题里都出现这个词,具体怎么解释,不好直接忽略吧?
查看试题 已回答02.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Equality between aggregate expenditure and aggregate output implies that the government‘s fiscal deficit must equal: A Private saving - Investment - Net exports. B Private saving - Investment + Net exports. C Investment - Private saving + Net exports. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:51% GDP calculation难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The fundamental relationship among saving, investment, the fiscal balance, and the trade balance is S = I (G - T) (X - M). This form of the relationship shows that private saving must fund investment expenditures, the government fiscal balance, and net exports (= net capital outflows). Rearranging gives G - T = (S -I) - (X - M). The government's fiscal deficit (G - I) must be equal to the private sector's saving/investment balance (S -I) minus net exports. 问:如图,紫色箭头标明的 1.aggregate output就是总收入 output为啥对应income?2.fiscal deficit是 G-T,G-T应该是盈余或者赤子吧,感觉表达的也不严谨?
01.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 In 2013, a calligraphyis produced and sold for $3,000. The expenses involved in producing the painting amounted to $1,000. What is the value added by the final step of creating the painting based on the sum-of-value-added method of calculating GDP: A $2000. B $3000. C $5000. 查看解析 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:77% GDP calculation难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 This is the value added by the artist: $3,000 — $1,000 = $2,000. 问:这个是基础课里的截图:她的意思是 第一个0.15也要算进来,对应这道题就是第一个1000块钱也应该算进来吗? 是否有矛盾?
精品问答
- Effective duration和Effective convexiy的公式为什么不用modified duration和convexity的原本公式,而是和他们的近似的久期和突性的公式一致?
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?










