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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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本题第一个选项和第三个选项是不是同一个意思:carrying value=historical cost -depreciation,课件上例题也是这样求carrying calue 的
查看试题 已回答risks in infrastructure investing are most likely greatest when the project involves A construction of infrastructure assets B investment in existing infrastructure assets C investing in assets that will be leased back to a government
已回答Ash Lawn Partners,a fund of hedge funds ,has the following fee structure: 2/20 underlying fund fees with incentive fees calculated independently Ash Lawn fees are calculated net of all underlying fund fees 1%management fee (based on year-end market value) 10%incentive fee calculated net of management fee the fund and all underlying funds have no hurdle rate or high-water mark fee conditions in the latest year,Ash Lawn's fund value increased from$100 million to $133 million before deduction of management and incentive fees of the fund or underlying funds.based on the information provided,the total fee earned by all funds in the aggregate is closest to A 11.85 B 12.75 C 12.87 为什么是两笔费?
已回答a hedge fund has the following fee structure annual management fee based on year-end AUM 2% incentive fee 20% hurdle rate before incentive fee collection starts 4% current high-water mark 610 million the fund has a value of $ 583.1 million at the beginning of the year.after one year,it has a value of $642 million before fees.the net return to an investor for this year is closest to A 6.72% B 6.80% C 7.64 老师,high water 这块的计算没理解,为什么要610*(1+4%),为什么还要是1+4%
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 是不是只有在市场均衡点,才是社会总福利不损失的点? 偏离市场均衡点,社会总福利都会损失? 因为要么生产过剩,要么就是总供给不足. 另外,为什么只有在完全竞争市场中才能实现社会总福利最优,才能有市场均衡点? 在其他各类市场中,不是需求供给需求也是有的吗?他们的均衡点难道不是市场均衡点吗? 在那个点声场不是可以实现社会总福利最优吗? 这点不是很清楚,老师可以画图说明下. 另外, 对于一级价格歧视这种,它又是怎么实现社会总福利不损失的,这时候的需求曲线和供给曲线是什么样的?和完全竞争市场不同吗
