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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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04.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 An internal evaluation of the trading behavior of three fund managers of a mutual fund company during the past year has revealed the following: Manager X: She was slower than peers when reacting to changes in information.? Manager Y: He rarely realized investment losses but realized most of the investment gains. Manager Z: She tended to overreact by disliking losses more than liking comparable gains. From the above, which of the three managers most likely displayed a behavioral bias called “disposition effect”? A Manager X. B Manager Y. C Manager Z. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案B本题平均正确率:71% Behavioral finance definition and classification难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Disposition effect relates to the behavioral bias in which investors tend toward avoiding realizing losses but, rather, seek to realize gains. Manager Y has displayed this bias because he rarely realized investment losses but realized most of the investment gains. 问:X是哪个behavioral bias来着?
查看试题 已回答07.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Which of the following best describes the majority of the evidence regarding anomalies in stock returns? A Weak-form market efficiency holds but semi-strong form efficiency does not. B Neither weak-form nor semi-strong form market efficiency holds. C Reported anomalies are not violations of market efficiency but are the result of research methodologies. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案A本题平均正确率:77% Behavioral finance definition and classification难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The majority of evidence is that anomalies are not violations of market efficiency but are due to the research methodologies used. Portfolio management based on anomalies will likely be unprofitable after costs are considered. 问:解析没有听明白,可否再解释一下
查看试题 已回答05.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 The value effect market-pricing anomaly most likely occurs when stocks that have below-average price-to-earnings and market-to-book ratios, as well as above-average dividend yields, consistently outperform: A large-cap stocks. B growth stocks. C stocks that have had negative earnings surprises. 问: 1. value effect market-pricing anomaly 这一串英文整个 是行为金融学中 市场异常的一种是吧?整个是一个术语? 2.对于这个异常我一直没有太理解:正常情况下,成长股应该好于价值股,但是现在反过来了,所以视作一种异常。是不是这样理解? 请逐次回答 谢谢
查看试题 已回答05.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Which of the following security market will result in highest arbitrage activity? A Market efficiency. B With no restrictions on short selling. C With high information-acquisition costs. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案C本题平均正确率:44% Contrast weak form, semi-strong form, strong form market efficiency难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Short selling helps in price discovery. Arbitrageurs benefit from pricing discrepancies (inefficiencies); therefore, arbitrage activity will be higher in markets with no restrictions on short selling. 问: B.是能够使市场更有效,所以应该是降低套利啊? C.是让信息获取的成本变高,即增加了信息不对等的可能性,才有机会套利啊? 所以我认为选C
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- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 那么股票的公允价值是不是交易价格? 既不和市场价值一样,也不和账面价值一样?
- 场内和场外OTC市场 与 公募和私募 是一样的吗? 那么一级市场和二级市场是不是都有场内和场外一说?
- 问下, Cryptocurrencies加密货币 与 Tokens代币 都是数字资产,那么区别本质是什么
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
