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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:5979提问数量:108162
16.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Which of the following is the benefit of issuing bonds through a special purpose vehicle? A Bankruptcy remoteness. B Beneficial tax treatments. C Greater liquidity and lower issuing costs. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:92% Legal information难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 A SPV is a bankruptcy-remote vehicle. Bankruptcy remoteness is achieved by transferring the assets from the sponsor to the SPV. Once this transfer is completed, the sponsor no longer has ownership rights. If the sponsor defaults, no claims can be made to recover the assets that were transferred or the proceeds from the transfer to the SPV. 问:这里说的破产隔离是对谁的好处,哪个主体,银行,投资人还是spv?
查看试题 已回答11.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Consider a floating rate issue that has a coupon rate that is reset on January 1 of each year. The coupon rate is defined as one-year London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) + 125 basis points and the coupons are paid semi-annually. If the one-year LIBOR is 6.5% on January 1, which of the following is the semi-annual coupon payment received by the holder of the issue in that year: A 3.875%. B 3.250%. C 7.750%. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:70% Coupon payment structures难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 This value is computed as follows: Semi-annual coupon = (LIBOR + 125 basis points) / 2 = 3.875% 问:解析被删,求详细解释?
查看试题 已回答10.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Assume that a convertible bond has a par value of $1,000,000 and is currently priced at $1,200,000. The underlying share price is $50,000 and the conversion ratio is 30:1. The conversion condition for this bond is: A parity. B above parity. C below parity. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案B本题平均正确率:89% Convertible bond难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The conversion value of the bond is 50,000 x 30 = $1,500,000. The price of the convertible bond is $1,200,000. 'Thus, the conversion value of the bond is greater than the bond's price, and this condition is referred to as above parity. 问:1.这里的5w$一股指的是转化价对吧?2.通常情况下,市场价应该比这个高对吧,就是市场价可能是5.5w$每股才会决定转?但是这道题考的不是什么时候转换,所以不用考虑,是这样吗?请逐次回答 谢谢
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 是不是只有在市场均衡点,才是社会总福利不损失的点? 偏离市场均衡点,社会总福利都会损失? 因为要么生产过剩,要么就是总供给不足. 另外,为什么只有在完全竞争市场中才能实现社会总福利最优,才能有市场均衡点? 在其他各类市场中,不是需求供给需求也是有的吗?他们的均衡点难道不是市场均衡点吗? 在那个点声场不是可以实现社会总福利最优吗? 这点不是很清楚,老师可以画图说明下. 另外, 对于一级价格歧视这种,它又是怎么实现社会总福利不损失的,这时候的需求曲线和供给曲线是什么样的?和完全竞争市场不同吗
