
-
CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:6099提问数量:110221
18 In an industry comprised of three companies, which are small-scale manufacturers of an easily replicable product unprotected by brand recognition or patents, the most representative model of company behavior is: A oligopoly. B perfect competition. C monopolistic competition. 为什么不选C?
已解决6 Companies most likely have a well-defined supply function when the market structure is: A oligopoly. B perfect competition. C monopolistic competition. 什么叫well-defined supply function?为什么只有完全竞争市场是well-defined supply function?其中3种为什么不是?
已回答25 The short-term shutdown point of production for a firm operating under perfect competition will most likely occur when: A price is equal to average total cost. B marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost. C marginal revenue is equal to average variable costs. 这一题C选项MR=AVC是短期关停点,基础课讲的是AR=AVC,是因为在完全竞争市场下MR=AR所以MR=AVC是短期关停点吗?那对于非完全竞争下是MR=AVC呢还是TR=TVC是短期关停点?
已解决24 The short-term breakeven point of production for a firm operating under perfect competition will most likely occur when:A price is equal to average total cost.B marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost.C marginal revenue is equal to average variable costs.1)这一题是怎么的出来的?已知短期盈亏平衡点是AR=ATC,因为任何市场下P=AR,所以P=ATC吗?2)另外我看到原版书上写在完全竞争和非完全竞争下的盈亏平衡点都是AR=ATC,这个对吗?原版书:A firm is said to break even if its TR is equal to its TC. It can also be said that a firmbreaks even if its price (AR) is exactly equal to its ATC, which is true under conditionsof perfect and imperfect competition.3)题目中如果说的average cost是默认为average total cost吗?
已解决精品问答
- Effective duration和Effective convexiy的公式为什么不用modified duration和convexity的原本公式,而是和他们的近似的久期和突性的公式一致?
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?



