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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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您好,有两个问题哈,1.求average age这个公式是不是只能在直线折旧法下使用呢? 2.求average depreciable life这个公式,只考虑gross cost也就是历史成本就可以嘛,不需要考虑残值吗?
21 A country with a persistent trade surplus is being pressured to let its currencyappreciate. Which of the following best describes the adjustment that mustoccur if currency appreciation is to be effective in reducing the trade surplusA Domestic investment must decline relative to saving.B Foreigners must increase investment relative to saving.C Global capital flows must shift toward the domestic market这一题能解释一下吗?
已回答19 A country with a trade deficit willmost likely:A have an offsetting capital account surplusB save enough to fund its investment spending.C buy assets from foreigners to fund the imbalance.经常账户赤字为什么一定对应资本账户盈余?不是还有一个fiancial account吗?
已解决3 In order to minimize the foreign exchange exposure on a euro-denominatedreceivable due from a German company in 100 days, a British company wouldmost likely initiate a:A spot transaction.B forward contract.C real exchange rate contract.3 B is correct. The receivable is due in 100 days. To reduce the risk of currencyexposure, the British company would initiate a forward contract to sell euros/buy pounds at an exchange rate agreed to today. The agreedupon rate is calledthe forward exchange rate.这一题是做了hedge吗?是英国公司100天后要收到欧元,所以现在卖出欧元的forword买入英镑的forward吗?他是签了2个forward吗?
已回答19 Which of the following chronic deficit conditions is least alarming to the deficitcountry’s creditors?A High consumption.B High private investment.C High government spending.这题背景是什么?是如果一个国家经常账户出现逆差,债权人会觉得该国家偿债能力受影响吗?然后选项投资增加导致的逆差不会alarming 债权人是因为投资会增加收益是吗?
已解决精品问答
- Effective duration和Effective convexiy的公式为什么不用modified duration和convexity的原本公式,而是和他们的近似的久期和突性的公式一致?
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?




