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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:6080提问数量:109790
投资了100万无形资产,5年摊销,会计记帐如下:第一年 asset 中cash 降低100,同时无形资产增加80万,equity 中retained earning(armotization) 降低20万。 第二年:asset 无形资产降低20万,equity retained earning(armotization) 降低20万。 这样记账对否?谢谢。
已解决12. Trumpit Resorts Company currently has 1.2 million common shares of stock outstanding and the stock has a beta of 2.2. It also has $10 million face value of bonds that have five years remaining to maturity and 8 percent coupon with semi-annual payments, and are priced to yield 13.65 percent. If Trumpit issues up to $2.5 million of new bonds, the bonds will be priced at par and have a yield of 13.65 percent; if it issues bonds beyond $2.5 million, the expected yield on the entire issuance will be 16 percent.。Trumpit has learned that it can issue new common stock at $10 a share. The current risk-free rate of interest is 3 percent and the expected market return is 10 percent. Trumpit’s marginal tax rate is 30 percent. If Trumpit raises $7.5 million of new capital while maintaining the same debt-to-equity ratio, its weighted average cost of capital is closest to: A. 14.5 percent. B. 15.5 percent. C. 16.5 percent. 麻烦老师帮忙讲解一下,谢谢!
已解决8. The Gearing Company has an after-tax cost of debt capital of 4 percent, a cost of preferred stock of 8 percent, a cost of equity capital of 10 percent, and a weighted average cost of capital of 7 percent. Gearing intends to maintain its current capital structure as it raises additional capital. In making its capital-budgeting decisions for the average-risk project, the relevant cost of capital is: A. 4 percent. B. 7 percent. C. 8 percent. 麻烦老师讲解一下,谢谢!
已解决精品问答
- Effective duration和Effective convexiy的公式为什么不用modified duration和convexity的原本公式,而是和他们的近似的久期和突性的公式一致?
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?







