Which of the following is a discount market rate to be made for a single payment in the future? A Spot rate. B Forward rate. C Simple yield. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率：86% Valuation with spot rates难度：一般 推荐：      答案解析 A spot rate is a discount rate for a single future payment. Simple yield is a measure of a bond's yield that accounts for coupon interest and assumes straight-line amortization of a discount or premium. A forward rate is an interest rate for a future period, such as a 3-month rate six months from today. 问：1.图中紫色部分的英文怎么翻译，究竟是3月到6月这块的利率代表forward rate吗？2.远期利率也是后一笔现金流折到前一个时间点啊，所以也是single 单一的payment啊，A为啥错？请逐次回答 谢谢

老师好，这题为什么不是0.011-0.002996

03.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Current spot rates are as follows: 1-Year: 6.5% 2-Year: 7.0% 3-Year: 9.2% Which of the following is CORRECT : A For a 3-year annual pay coupon bond, all cash flows can be discounted at 9.2% to find the bond's arbitrage-free value. B The yield to maturity for 3-year annual pay coupon bond can be found by taking the geometric average of the 3 spot rates. C For a 3-year annual pay coupon bond, the first coupon can be discounted at 6.5%, the second coupon can be discounted at 7.0%, and the third coupon plus maturity value can be discounted at 9.2% to find the bond's arbitrage-free value. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案B本题平均正确率：88% Valuation with spot rates难度：一般 推荐：      答案解析 Spot interest rates can be used to price coupon bonds by taking each individual cash flow and discounting it at the appropriate spot rate for that year’s payment. Note that the yield to maturity is the bond’s internal rate of return that eq 问：（1+SP1）(1+SP2)(1+SP3)=(1+YTM)³，这里存在这样的关系吗，如果存在，B感觉是对的啊？

老师您好，我想问一下B选项里的director指什么？

老师，能否详细解释一下这道题？A、B、C选项分别是什么意思？

老师，题目不是说如下信息为20X1年的吗，为什么说后面年份capital leases 7.184被包含在20X1年的数据里

为什么上市公司的股价反应的是少数股权的价值，而非上市公司反应的是控股权的价值，为什么股权的风险大于债权的风险

为什么这里的折现率就是浮动利率？债券利率是libor+quote margin 市场利率不是libor+discount margin么？

老师你好，关于Growth rate有个问题 real growth rate是通过C-D算出来的 ，之后通过得出的该结果代入H model 作为长期grow rate，但是这样的话不就漏算了inflation rate了吗？

在计算稀释EPS时，如果基础EPS是0.8，可转债那个圈圈结果是0.1，可转化优先股圈圈结果是0.6，这样最小EPS结果应该是基础EPS和可转债圈圈分子分母相加吧？不用三者加在一起了吧？可是按照老师的意思，可转债和可转化优先股都比基础EPS小，因此都要算进来。这两者到底哪个对？