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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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04.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Regarding to the security market line, if two risky assets have the same covariance with the market portfolio but have different estimated rates of return, the most accurate conclusion is that the two risky assets have: A Different amounts of systematic risk, and both assets are properly valued. B The same amount of systematic risk, and at least one of the assets is either overvalued or undervalued. C The same amount of systematic risk, and both assets are properly valued. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:80% CAPM and SML难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Beta is the covariance of an asset with the market portfolio divided by the variance of the market portfolio. 问:小视频看不懂,不知道和PV啥关系,可否进一步解释?
查看试题 已回答18.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 If there is no change in the proportion of each asset held in the portfolio or the expected standard deviation of the individual assets .The correlation between assets in a two–asset portfolio increases during a market decline will mostly cause the volatility of the portfolio to: A decrease. B remain the same. C increase. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案C本题平均正确率:75% Return measures, properties of returns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Higher correlations will produce less diversification benefits provided that the other components of the portfolio standard deviation do not change (i.e., the weights and standard deviations of the individual assets). 问: 1.“If there is no change in the proportion of each asset held in the portfolio or the expected standard deviation of the individual assets .”这里用的是or,是否能理解为 权重和标准差都保持不变? 2.market decline是干扰项吗?没用影响?
查看试题 已回答15.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Compared to investing in only one asset type, the portfolio of a risk–free asset and a risky asset has a better risk–return trade–off because the correlation between the risk–free asset and the risky asset is equal to A 0.0 B 1.0 C -1.0 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:70% Return measures, properties of returns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 portfolio of the risk–free asset and a risky asset or a portfolio of risky assets can result in a better risk–return trade–off than an investment in only one type of an asset, because the risk–free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset. 请问: 1.“because the risk–free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset.”这里的risky as set是EF上的任意一个点,还是整个坐标系内的任意一点? 2.这个结论 即:Rf与任意一点的相关系数为0 ,可否解释一下(用图或者用公式) PS:请按问题顺序回答 谢谢
查看试题 已回答01.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Regarding an equally-weighted portfolio made up of a large number of assets, choose one of the following contributes the most to the volatility of the portfolio: A Standard deviation of the individual assets. B Average covariance between all pairs of assets. C Average variance of the individual assets. 查看解析 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案B本题平均正确率:65% Return measures, properties of returns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The co-movement measures between the assets increases (i.e., covariance and correlation) as the number of assets in the equally weighted portfolio increases. The contribution of each individual asset's variance (or standard deviation) to the portfolio's volatility decreases as the number of assets in the equally weighted portfolio increases. The following equation for the variance of an equally weighted portfolio illustrates these points: 请问:这个公式要不要掌握,有计算吗?
精品问答
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?




