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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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04.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Regarding to the security market line, if two risky assets have the same covariance with the market portfolio but have different estimated rates of return, the most accurate conclusion is that the two risky assets have: A Different amounts of systematic risk, and both assets are properly valued. B The same amount of systematic risk, and at least one of the assets is either overvalued or undervalued. C The same amount of systematic risk, and both assets are properly valued. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:80% CAPM and SML难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Beta is the covariance of an asset with the market portfolio divided by the variance of the market portfolio. 问:小视频看不懂,不知道和PV啥关系,可否进一步解释?
查看试题 已回答18.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 If there is no change in the proportion of each asset held in the portfolio or the expected standard deviation of the individual assets .The correlation between assets in a two–asset portfolio increases during a market decline will mostly cause the volatility of the portfolio to: A decrease. B remain the same. C increase. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案C本题平均正确率:75% Return measures, properties of returns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Higher correlations will produce less diversification benefits provided that the other components of the portfolio standard deviation do not change (i.e., the weights and standard deviations of the individual assets). 问: 1.“If there is no change in the proportion of each asset held in the portfolio or the expected standard deviation of the individual assets .”这里用的是or,是否能理解为 权重和标准差都保持不变? 2.market decline是干扰项吗?没用影响?
查看试题 已回答15.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Compared to investing in only one asset type, the portfolio of a risk–free asset and a risky asset has a better risk–return trade–off because the correlation between the risk–free asset and the risky asset is equal to A 0.0 B 1.0 C -1.0 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:70% Return measures, properties of returns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 portfolio of the risk–free asset and a risky asset or a portfolio of risky assets can result in a better risk–return trade–off than an investment in only one type of an asset, because the risk–free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset. 请问: 1.“because the risk–free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset.”这里的risky as set是EF上的任意一个点,还是整个坐标系内的任意一点? 2.这个结论 即:Rf与任意一点的相关系数为0 ,可否解释一下(用图或者用公式) PS:请按问题顺序回答 谢谢
查看试题 已回答01.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Regarding an equally-weighted portfolio made up of a large number of assets, choose one of the following contributes the most to the volatility of the portfolio: A Standard deviation of the individual assets. B Average covariance between all pairs of assets. C Average variance of the individual assets. 查看解析 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案B本题平均正确率:65% Return measures, properties of returns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The co-movement measures between the assets increases (i.e., covariance and correlation) as the number of assets in the equally weighted portfolio increases. The contribution of each individual asset's variance (or standard deviation) to the portfolio's volatility decreases as the number of assets in the equally weighted portfolio increases. The following equation for the variance of an equally weighted portfolio illustrates these points: 请问:这个公式要不要掌握,有计算吗?
精品问答
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 是不是只有在市场均衡点,才是社会总福利不损失的点? 偏离市场均衡点,社会总福利都会损失? 因为要么生产过剩,要么就是总供给不足. 另外,为什么只有在完全竞争市场中才能实现社会总福利最优,才能有市场均衡点? 在其他各类市场中,不是需求供给需求也是有的吗?他们的均衡点难道不是市场均衡点吗? 在那个点声场不是可以实现社会总福利最优吗? 这点不是很清楚,老师可以画图说明下. 另外, 对于一级价格歧视这种,它又是怎么实现社会总福利不损失的,这时候的需求曲线和供给曲线是什么样的?和完全竞争市场不同吗
