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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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02.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Consider a U.S. investor who has a portfolio of Australian government bonds that are denominated in Australian dollars. Why would the investor wish to enter into a swap contract? As the Australian: A dollar increases in value, the interest payments from the Australian bonds translate into fewer U.S. dollars. B interest rate decreases, the value of the Australian bonds decreases. C dollar decreases in value, the interest payments from the Australian bonds translate into fewer U.S. Dollars. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案A本题平均正确率:54% Swap 难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 As the Australian dollar decreases in value, the interest payments from the bond (and perhaps the bond’s face value if the bond is at maturity), translate into fewer U.S. dollars, which reduces the interest earned on the Australian bonds. 问:这题C的逻辑是在说什么?我持有的是澳币的资产,不是应该担心澳币下跌给我带来损失吗,所以签了这份协议。所以签完之后应该是 澳币下跌,我会有好处吧,但是C说的是收到的利息更少了,好像不对吧
查看试题 已回答Consider the pairwise correlations of monthly returns of the following asset classes: Based solely on the information in the above table, which equity asset is most sharply distinguished from US equities.
Consider the pairwise correlations of monthly returns of the following asset classes: Based solely on the information in the above table, which equity asset is most sharply distinguished from US equities.
查看试题 已回答11.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Choose one of the following statements regarding settling a forward prior to expiration contract is most accurate? A A party who terminates a forward contract early must make cash payment. B Early termination through an offsetting transaction with the original counterparty eliminates default risk. C A party who terminates the contract early has no risk. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案C本题平均正确率:83% Forward难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Terminating a forward contract early with a different counterparty exposes a party to default risk. If the offsetting transaction is with the original counterparty, default risk is eliminated. No cash payment is required if an offsetting contract is used for early termination. 问:C为什么错?提前结束不就是为了消除风险吗
查看试题 已回答这道题意思是如果不考虑递延所得税负债和递延所得税资产,pretax income*(1-t)就是income tax expense了?pretax income*(1-t)不是NI,是个利润吗?income tax expense不是所得税费用吗?这俩怎么相等了?
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
