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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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17.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Hitch changes its target capital structure to 70% equity and 30% debt from its original capital structure with 100% equity financing. Hitch has a large asset base, a 30% operating profit margin, and the average interest rate on debt is expected to be 5.0%. If Hitch makes the change to its target capital structure and EBIT is unchanged, what is most likely the impact on Hitch's net income and return on equity (ROE) respectively? A Decrease; Increase B No Change; Increase C Decrease ;Decrease 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:55% WACC难度:容易 推荐: 答案解析 You should be able to figure out this question with logic (without having to use calculations). The interest expense associated with using debt represents a fixed cost that reduces net income. However, the lower net income value is spread over a smaller base of equity capital, serving to increase the ROE. 问:没明白关联到哪个知识点,可否进一步讲解?
查看试题 已回答11.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Wang Securities had a long-term stable debt-to-equity ratio of 0.65. Recent bank borrowing for expansion into South America raised the ratio to 0.75. The increased leverage has what effect on the asset beta and equity beta of the company? A The asset beta and the equity beta will both rise. B The asset beta will remain the same and the equity beta will rise. C The asset beta will remain the same and the equity beta will decline. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:68% WACC难度:容易 推荐: 答案解析 B is correct. Asset risk does not change with a higher debt-to-equity ratio. Equity risk rises with higher debt. 问:解释没有听懂,能不能进一步解释?和那个去杠杆 加杠杆的公式有没有关系?
查看试题 已回答1:B是错在不是外部审计人员审核,是企业内部审核委员会审核吗? 2:COMPETITIVE DYNAMICS 这一条看视频不是很理解,请老师解释一下 3:SHAREHOLDER ACTIVISM 这种极端行为是好的还是不好的,而且讲义上以对冲基金作为例子也不是很明白,请老师注意讲解一下,谢谢
查看试题 已回答06.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Which of the following statements is least accurate on the discounted payback period? A Discounted payback period frequently ignores terminal values. B Discounted payback period is the time it takes for the present value of the project's cash inflows to equal the initial cost of the investment. C Discounted payback period is generally shorter than the regular payback. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案C本题平均正确率:81% PBP, DPB & PI难度:容易 推荐: 答案解析 The discounted payback is longer than the regular payback because cash flows are discounted to their present value. 问: A中"ignores terminal values"的意思是指忽略比如5年的现金流最后的一期吗?就是比如3.x年回本,那么第五年也就是最后一年的就不看了?是这个意思吗?还是说 终值指的是 整个产品的价值,即NPV,就是回归期不考虑项目收益?A选项中文到底是在说什么?
查看试题 已回答29.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 The effect of a company announcement that they have begun a project with a current cost of $10 million that will generate future cash flows with a present value of $20 million is most likely to: A Only affect value of the firm's common shares if the project was unexpected. B Increase the value of the firm's common shares by $20 million. C Increase value of the firm's common shares by $10 million. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案C本题平均正确率:23% NPV & IRR难度:容易 推荐: 答案解析 Stock prices reflect investor expectations for future investment and growth. A new positive-NPV project will increase stock price only if it was not previously anticipated by investors. 问:没被预期才能影响到股票的上涨?没明白讲解里的这句话的意思? 请进一步讲解
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- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 是不是只有在市场均衡点,才是社会总福利不损失的点? 偏离市场均衡点,社会总福利都会损失? 因为要么生产过剩,要么就是总供给不足. 另外,为什么只有在完全竞争市场中才能实现社会总福利最优,才能有市场均衡点? 在其他各类市场中,不是需求供给需求也是有的吗?他们的均衡点难道不是市场均衡点吗? 在那个点声场不是可以实现社会总福利最优吗? 这点不是很清楚,老师可以画图说明下. 另外, 对于一级价格歧视这种,它又是怎么实现社会总福利不损失的,这时候的需求曲线和供给曲线是什么样的?和完全竞争市场不同吗
