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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
As a result of a change in strategy to selling differentiated products at premium prices, a company's gross margin ratio increased by 5 percentage points (i.e., from 35 percent to 40 percent). The most likely effect on the company's operating margin ratio as a result of the changes in strategy would be an increase? A equal to 5%. B less than 5%. C greater than 5%. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A 请问SG&A中 含广告费和R&d费用吗?
查看试题 已回答Assume a firm with a debt to equity ratio of 0.50 and debt equal to $35 million. It makes a commitment to acquire raw materials with a present value of $12 million over the next 3 years. For purposes of analysis, the best estimate of the debt to equity ratio should be: A 0.500. B 0.573. C 0.671. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案A本题平均正确率:50% The original debt / equity ratio = 35 / 70 = 0.5. Now adjust the numerator but not the denominator. Why? You have commitments (liabilities) but no new equity because (non-current) liabilities and assets are increased by the same amount. D/E = (35 + 12) / 70 = 0.671. 请问:这12M应该是A/P吧,而AP是不计利息的,算L,但是不算在DEBT里面,所以理论上比值应该保持不变?
查看试题 已回答The following footnote appeared in Crabtree Company's 20X7 annual reports: "On December 31, 20X7, Crabtree recognized a restructuring charge of $20 million, of which $5 million was for severance pay for employees who will be terminated in 20X8 and $15 million was for land that became permanently impaired in 20X7." Based only on these changes, Crabtree's net profit margin and fixed asset turnover ratio (using year-end financial statement values) in 20X8 as compared to 20X7 will be: A Higher for net profit margin; higher for fixed asset turnover. B Higher for net profit margin; unchanged for fixed asset turnover. C Lower for net profit margin; higher for fixed asset turnover. B The restructuring charge and asset write-down are non-recurring transactions; thus, net income will be higher in 20X8, all else equal. 请问此题中 究竟是20M的总重组费还是5M的解雇费影响NI?
查看试题 已回答13. Comte Industries issues $3,000,000 worth of three-year bonds dated 1 January 2015. The bonds pay interest of 5.5% annually on 31 December. The market interest rate on bonds of comparable risk and term is 5%. The sales proceeds of the bonds are $3,040,849. Under the straight-line method, the interest expense in the first year is closest to: A. $150,000. B. $151,384. C. $152,042. 老师,这题我怎么算得,要选C,而答案却要选B呢?麻烦帮忙讲解一下:the straight-line method;Amortized cost method;Effective interest rate method,这三种方法的区别和相同之处呢?
已回答12. For a bond issued at a premium, using the effective interest rate method, the: A. carrying amount increases each year. B. amortization of the premium increases each year. C. premium is evenly amortized over the life of the bond. 老师这道题,我怎么觉得carrying amount,amortization of the premium这两项都是逐年递减的,而C答案说的是平价债券,怎么感觉都没有正确答案呢?麻烦讲解一下。
已回答10. A company issues $30,000,000 face value of five-year bonds dated 1 January 2015 when the market interest rate on bonds of comparable risk and terms is 5%. The bonds pay 4% interest annually on 31 December. Based on the effective interest rate method, the carrying amount of the bonds on 31 December 2015 is closest to: A. $28,466,099. B. $28,800,000. C. $28,936,215. 老师,麻烦讲解一下这道题,我怎么算不出选项中的答案呀,麻烦附一下解题过程。谢谢。
已回答就是因为资不抵债才没法严格按照顺序来啊,如果清算时资产价值完全是充足的,该拿多少,拿多少,都够,那还会有人去纠结这个顺序吗?而对于所谓优先权的妥协,那是没办法啊,为了可以顺利处置必须达成一致,那这不是造成顺序不能被完美执行的原因吧,原因那肯定是不够分啊,是实际中要照顾各方利益啊,这题逻辑不太通啊。
查看试题 已回答精品问答
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- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 为什么B选项要考虑借股还股?而A选项没有考虑借钱买然后还钱?可以都不考虑吗?还是借股还股一定要在这个流程中体现?
- 老师好,官网这道题我有点没太懂,麻烦讲解
- 老师您好!这个需要掌握吗?谢谢
- 是不是只有在市场均衡点,才是社会总福利不损失的点? 偏离市场均衡点,社会总福利都会损失? 因为要么生产过剩,要么就是总供给不足. 另外,为什么只有在完全竞争市场中才能实现社会总福利最优,才能有市场均衡点? 在其他各类市场中,不是需求供给需求也是有的吗?他们的均衡点难道不是市场均衡点吗? 在那个点声场不是可以实现社会总福利最优吗? 这点不是很清楚,老师可以画图说明下. 另外, 对于一级价格歧视这种,它又是怎么实现社会总福利不损失的,这时候的需求曲线和供给曲线是什么样的?和完全竞争市场不同吗



