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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
Valuing assets at the amount of cash or equivalents paid that would be received in an orderly disposal is: A current cost. B present value. C realizable value. 请问: 1.that would be received in an orderly disposal 这里的that指代的是amount这笔钱吗? 2.这里说的按顺序处置不太理解,难道是指公司破产清算? 3.realizable value一般在哪些情况记账会用到?
查看试题 已回答Zimt AG wrote down the value of its inventory in 2007 and reversed the write-down in 2008. Compared to the results the company would have reported if the write-down had never occurred, Zimt's reported 2008: A profit was overstated. B cash flow from operations was overstated. C year-end inventory balance was overstated. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A The reversal of the write-down shifted cost of sales from 2008 to 2007. The 2007 cost of sales was higher because of the write-down, and the 2008 cost of sales was lower because of the reversal of the write-down. As a result, the reported 2008 profits were overstated. Inventory balance in 2008 is the same because the write-down and reversal cancel each other out, Cash flow from operations is not affected by the non-cash write-down, but the higher profits in 2008 likely resulted in higher taxes and thus lower cash flow from operations. 请问小视频里说的2007年存货下降,COGS就将上升,这个逻辑我不太理解? 1.减值 说的存货是指期初还是期末? 2.是否跟BASE法则有关,可否给出相关推导?
查看试题 已回答04.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Company A adheres to US GAAP and Company B adheres to IFRS. Which of the following is most likely to be disclosed on the financial statements of both companies? A Any material income resulting from the liquidation of LIFO inventory. B The amount of inventories recognized as an expense during the period. C The circumstances that led to the reversal of a write down of inventories 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A 请问:这里的 期间存货费用化,我能想到的例子是:abnormal material,不知道对不对?
查看试题 已回答精品问答
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- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?

