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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:6091提问数量:110084
03.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 According to the following statements about auto loan Receivable-backed securities, which statement is not correct? A A subprime loan is one granted to borrowers with higher credit quality. B The purpose of a reserve account is to provide internal credit enhancement. C Overcollateralization means that the aggregate principle balance of the automobile loan contracts exceeds the principle balance of the notes. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:69% Non-mortgage asset-backed securities难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 A subprime loan is one granted to borrowers with lower credit quality. 问:C这句话怎么翻译,怎么理解? 我对过度抵押的理解是,我买了一辆车50w,抵押了我家的房子500w,但是和C应该没关系?C在说什么 请问?
查看试题 已回答01.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 The collateral for credit card receivable-backed securities are: A non-amortizing loans. B full-amortizing loans C mortgage-backed loans 查看解析 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:79% Non-mortgage asset-backed securities难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 The collateral for auto loan-backed securities are loans that fully amortize, however the collateral for credit card receivable-backed securities are non-amortizing loans. Auto loan-backed securities’ principle is distributed to the bond classes each month, and the amount of the outstanding pool balance declines over time. 问:这里说的 信用卡摊销 究竟是什么意思? 比如:我信用卡额度1w 这个月刷了5000,我可以一次性 还清5000,也可以分期还款。请问这里说的摊销指什么,没有搞清楚在说哪一方
查看试题 已回答03.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 In the context of commercial mortgage-backed securities (CMBS) which of the following mechanisms is most likely a structural call protection? A Prepayment lockouts. B Yield maintenance charges. C Sequential-pay tranches. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案C本题平均正确率:56% CMBS难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 C is correct. A structural call protection can be achieved in a CMBS when it is structured to have sequential-pay tranches by credit rating. A is incorrect because prepayment lockouts are a call protection mechanism offered to investors at the loan level. B is incorrect because yield maintenance charges are a call protection mechanism offered to investors at the loan level. 问:问题和本题可能没太大关联,maintain yield说的是折现,但是具体什么意思 怎么操作没有理解,可否简单解释一下?还有它贴现 是以哪个r贴现,怎么就能使投资人还是银行不损失?
02.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 According to the following statements, which statement is correct? A CMBS are securities backed by a pool of commercial mortgage loans on capital-gain-producing property. B The characteristic of call protection of CMBS makes CMBS to trade in the market more like corporate bonds than RMBS. C The call protection of CMBS has only one forms: at the structure level. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案B本题平均正确率:75% CMBS难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 CMBS have considerable call protection, which allows CMBS to trade in the market more like corporate bonds than like RMBS. 问:C选项的两种 the structure level 和 loan level可否简单解释一下?
查看试题 已回答03.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 A BBB-rated corporation wishes to issue debt to finance its operations at the lowest cost possible. If it decides to sell a pool of receivables into a special purpose vehicle (SPV), its primary motivation is most likely to: A allow the corporation to retain a first lien on the assets of the SPV. B segregate the assets into a bankruptcy-remote entity for bondholders. C receive a guaranty from the SPV to improve the corporation’s credit rating. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案B本题平均正确率:72% Securitization难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 allow the corporation to retain a first lien on the assets of the SPV. segregate the assets into a bankruptcy-remote entity for bondholders. receive a guaranty from the SPV to improve the corporation’s credit rating. 问:破产隔离的意思,是不是 比如传统的MBS,银行把loan卖给了spv,所以和spv就两清了,这时如果最终的还房贷的人还不上钱,投资者怎么找,一层一层的找 顶多找到spv,就不能再往上找了,也就是找不着银行的事,所以对于银行来说-叫破产隔离? 另外:如果像这道题 ,是企业把应收账款 一旦卖给了 spv,就是只要有spv愿意接,相当于企业就已经 提前收回来了 这笔A/R,之后企业的 下游还的还不上钱,企业已经不care了,因为和我隔离开了,是这样吗?
查看试题 已回答问:1.是不是实际运行起来,买房人还是把钱给银行,银行再把钱给三大机构,三大机构在把钱给到投资人?图中的CF直接指向投资人 只是表示实际的钱是买房人出的而已?2.C选项说 现金流是从标的资产来的,但是如果是RMBS,CF不大多应该是买房的人的工资收入吗? 两个问题不相关 请逐次回答~
精品问答
- Effective duration和Effective convexiy的公式为什么不用modified duration和convexity的原本公式,而是和他们的近似的久期和突性的公式一致?
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- 为什么长期垄断竞争中 D和ATC相切
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?





