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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
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03.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Choose one of the following correctly describe the writer of a put position in the underlying asset? A Short position and short exposure of risk B Long position and long exposure of risk C Short position and long exposure of risk 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案A 本题平均正确率:52% Option难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Writer of an option sells out a right, so it is the short position. Also writer of a put option sells out a right to sell something in the future, so when the price of underlying asset goes done, then the writer must buy it at the strike price if the long put position exercise the option, so it is also the same as long exposure of risk. 问:请问“long exposure of risk”的含义是什么呢?如果用图表示的话是哪一块?
查看试题 已回答02.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Choose one of the following is most similar to a short position in the underlying asset? A Writing a put. B Buying a call. C Buying a put. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案C本题平均正确率:57% Option难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Buying a put is most similar to a short position in the underlying asset because the put increase the value if the underlying asset value decreases. The writer of a put and the holder of call have a long exposure to the underlying asset because their positions increase in value if the underlying asset value increase. 问:对于标的资产是卖,所以是put;默认表示拥有一项权利,是long=>所以是 long put。 我这样理解对吗?
查看试题 已回答2.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Determine the upcoming payments on a swap with a notional principal of $5,000,000 in which the fixed-rate payer makes semiannual fixed payments of 10% and the counterparty makes floating-rate payments at Euribor. The Euribor rate at the last settlement period was 8%.The fixed-rate payments are made on the basis of 180 days in the settlement period and 365 days in a year. The floating-rate payments use a 180/360 day convention. A The net payment is $16,010 from the fixed-rate payer to the floating-rate payer. B The net payment is $46,500 from the fixed-rate payer to the floating-rate payer. C The net payment is $18,750 from the floating-rate payer to the fixed-rate payer. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:55% Swap 难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 5000000*(10%*180/365-8%*180/360) = 46,500. 问:固浮互换那张图 相关的定量计算 还会考吗?基础课里没提这块
查看试题 已回答27. The least likely explanation for why fiscal policy cannot stabilize aggregate demand completely is that: A. private sector behavior changes overtime. B. policy changes are implemented very quickly. C. fiscal policy focuses more on inflation than on unemployment. 为什么不选C呢?
已解决25. Given an independent central bank, monetary policy actions are more likely than fiscal policy actions to be: A. implementable quickly. B. effective when a specific group is targeted. C. effective when combating a deflationary economy. 书本上的答案解释太简单,请说明B为什么不对?
已回答精品问答
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- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
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- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?


