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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
49. Acme Corp. purchased a new stamping machine for $100,000, paid $10,000 for shipping, and paid $5,000 to have it installed in their plant. Based on an estimated salvage value of $25,000 and an economic life of six years, the difference between straight-line depreciation and double-declining balance depreciation in the second year of the asset's life is closest to: A. $7,220. B. $10,556. C. $16,666. 您的答案:C 正确答案:B 得分:0分 解析: Straight line depreciation is (100,000 10,000 5,000 ? 25,000) / 6 = 15,000 each year. Double-declining balance depreciation in the second year is: 115,000 (2/3) (1/3) = 25,556. The difference is $10,556. Remember that salvage value is not part of the declining balance calculation. 这道题计算DDB,我有问题。资产原值(不包含剩余价值)/6年*2=资产原值*1/3(按照1/3来折旧),第二年还剩下5年,资产原值*1/3*2/5哇?
已回答Which of the following statements is most accurate about the responsibilities of an auditor for a publicly traded firm in the United States? The auditor must: A. ensure that the financial statements are free from error, fraud, or illegal acts. B. state that the financial statements are prepared according to generally accepted accounting principles. C. express an opinion about the effectiveness of the company's internal control system 您的答案:C 正确答案:B 得分:0分 解析: For a publicly traded firm in the United States, the auditor must express an opinion as to whether the company's internal control system is in accordance with the Public Accounting Oversight Board, under the Sarbanes–Oxley Act. The opinion is given either in a final paragraph in the auditor's report or as a separate opinion. 这道题是这次的模考题,从答案解释来看,应该选B,所以我有点晕。
已回答老师您好,德州计算器第三排5个白色按键(TVM五键)中的FV和PV到底代表什么?实例如下: 例如: 有一笔后付年金的r=10%,payment=100,n=3。 那可以算出这笔年金的PV=248.6852,FV=331。 那现在在德州计算器上输入r=10%,FV=331,PV=-248.6852,n=3, 为什么算出来pmt=0? 在r,n不变的情况下,只有令『PV=-248.6852,FV=0』,或者令『PV=0,FV=-331』,才能算出pmt=100? TVM那一排五个键里面的FV和PV到底代表年金的现值和终值,还是分别代表T0和Tterminal时刻的除了payment以外的现金流?感觉这里输入的FV,PV的值就是上面年金算出的FV和PV,但他俩其中一个输入了上面算出的值,另一个就要输入0,不然算不出正确的pmt。现在FV和PV两个键输入和输出的数值分别代表什么,完全逻辑混乱了。
已回答精品问答
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
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- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 那么股票的公允价值是不是交易价格? 既不和市场价值一样,也不和账面价值一样?








