
-
CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:6085提问数量:109940
Assume a firm with a debt to equity ratio of 0.50 and debt equal to $35 million makes a commitment to acquire raw materials with a present value of $12 million over the next 3 years. For purposes of analysis the best estimate of the debt to equity ratio should be: A 0.500. B 0.573. C 0.671. 这道题为什么直接分子加12呢?他并没有说是另外有买一笔原材料,还是这35m里面有部分,或全部为买原材料
查看试题 已回答The following footnote appeared in Crabtree Company’s 20X7 annual reports: “On December 31, 20X7, Crabtree recognized a restructuring charge of $20 million, of which $5 million was for severance pay for employees who will be terminated in 20X8 and $15 million was for land that became permanently impaired in 20X7.”Based only on these changes, Crabtree’s net profit margin and fixed asset turnover ratio (using year-end financial statement values) in 20X8 as compared to 20X7 will be: A Higher for net profit margin; higher for fixed asset turnover B Higher for net profit margin;unchanged for fixed asset turnover C Lower for net profit margin; higher for fixed asset turnover 考试会考这种题吗?我觉得太接近实务了。这20m是收购方5m给了员工,15买了土地给的吗?题中没说,
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- 为什么半年付息 算ytm是乘以2 而年化的麦考利久期是除以2
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 那么股票的公允价值是不是交易价格? 既不和市场价值一样,也不和账面价值一样?






