赵同学2023-10-12 15:55:11
请问老师这个解析什么意思:A is incorrect. Operational risks typically have a low correlation with other market risk variables so assuming a zero correlation is conservative and an acceptable practice (see p. 276). “Most BHCs were not able to find meaningful correlation between macroeconomic variables and operational-risk loss severity”. Banks can provide correlation estimates between OpRisk and market risk variables with a proper defense, but assuming that op risk and market risk variables are strongly correlated is a cause for concern.
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Will2023-10-12 18:23:18
同学你好,这句话的意思是,操作风险通常与其他市场风险变量的相关性较低,因此假设零相关性是保守和可接受的做法。大多数银行控股公司无法找到宏观经济变量与操作风险损失严重程度之间的有意义的相关性。银行可以在合适的情况下提供操作风险与市场风险变量之间的相关性估计,但假设操作风险和市场风险变量高度相关是令人担忧的。简单来说,这句话是在讨论操作风险与市场风险之间的相关性问题,并强调了假设它们之间存在强相关性可能引起的担忧。
感谢正在备考中乘风破浪的您来提问~如果您对回复满意可【点赞和采纳】鼓励您和Will更加优秀,您的声音是我们前进的动力,祝您生活与学习愉快!~
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