Matcha2020-03-04 21:20:54
老师好,请问这道题,违约相关系数是0和是1,计算上有什么区别? Suppose there is a $1,000,000 portfolio with n credits that each have a default probability, π = 2% and a zero recovery rate. The default correlation is 0 and n = 1,000. There is a probability of 28 defaults at the 95th percentile based on the binomial distribution with the parameters of n = 1,000 and π = 0.02. What is the credit VaR at the 95% confidence level based on these parameters?
查看试题回答(1)
Cindy2020-03-05 13:54:27
同学你好,相关系数等于0的话,就意味每个贷款之间是互相不会受到影响的,此时,求贷款违约的概率,我们可以用二项分布来计算就可以了。不过这道题的话就不用求了,题目已经告诉我们最差情况下的违约情况了
如果相关系数等于1的话,就意味着1笔贷款违约,另外一笔贷款一定违约,这样,我们就可以把整个的贷款组合看成是一笔贷款,这样处理问题就会简化很多了
- 评论(0)
- 追问(0)


评论
0/1000
追答
0/1000
+上传图片