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CFA问答

CFA问答

CFA问答包含CFA在线课程、CFA通关课程、CFA试题等所有CFA相关问题,每个问题老师均会在24小时内给出答疑回复哦!

没有理解股票股利和股利再投资的区别。韩老师上课的时候讲的,股票股利是从留存收益变为总股本,为什么又说总股本不变,shares变多呢?股利再投资,实际是用div的现金增发股票,这一部分现金变为股本吧?请老师再详细解释一下吧,谢谢。

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全投资假设下为什么不用给利息?

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这里的Function是什么意思

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考试时这种题怎么解,计算量不小哦

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基础课后面的一道题,The value of a bond at a particular node, in this case Node 1–2, can be derived by working backwards from the two nodes to the right of that node on the tree. In this case, those two nodes are the middle node in Year 2, equal to 101.5168, and the lower node in Year 2, equal to 102.135. The coupon payment is 2.5. The bond value at Node 1–2 is calculated as follows: Value = [2.5+(0.5 × 101.5816 + 0.5 × 102.135)]/1.014925 = 102.7917 答案中的101.5168和102.135是怎么算出来的?为什么不是后面的104.0168和104.6350.或者把第一年的104.2876和这个NODE1-2用1.25%折现回0时点,等于103.4960.

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为何NPV的值就是公司市值增加的值?而不是NPV乘以市盈率呢?

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07.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 The manager of the Fullen Balanced Fund is putting together a report that breaks out the percentage of the variation in portfolio return that is explained by the target asset allocation, security selection, and tactical variations from the target, respectively. Which of the following sets of numbers was the most likely conclusion for the report? A 50%, 25%, 25%. B 90%, 6%, 4%. C 33%, 33%, 33%. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:45% Investment constraints, asset allocation难度:一般 推荐:      答案解析 Several studies support the idea that approximately 90% of the variation in a single portfolio’s returns can be explained by its target asset allocations, with security selection and tactical variations from the target (market timing) playing a much less significant role. In fact, for actively managed funds, actual portfolio returns are slightly less than those that would ha 问:the percentage of the variation in portfolio return 这句话怎么翻译?反应的是各种策略所占的什么的百分比-收入 还是 基金经理所耗费的精力?

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开3次平方根 4次平方根怎么按计算器

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对于zero-coupon rate 没有 reinvestment risk可以当做结论记吗

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spot yield curve是用零息债券的YTM 下面零息债券是不是选用风险最低的一项就行?

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