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04.单选题 收藏 标记 纠错 Regarding to the security market line, if two risky assets have the same covariance with the market portfolio but have different estimated rates of return, the most accurate conclusion is that the two risky assets have: A Different amounts of systematic risk, and both assets are properly valued. B The same amount of systematic risk, and at least one of the assets is either overvalued or undervalued. C The same amount of systematic risk, and both assets are properly valued. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案B 您的答案A本题平均正确率:80% CAPM and SML难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Beta is the covariance of an asset with the market portfolio divided by the variance of the market portfolio. 问:小视频看不懂,不知道和PV啥关系,可否进一步解释?
查看试题 已回答18.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 If there is no change in the proportion of each asset held in the portfolio or the expected standard deviation of the individual assets .The correlation between assets in a two–asset portfolio increases during a market decline will mostly cause the volatility of the portfolio to: A decrease. B remain the same. C increase. 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案C 您的答案C本题平均正确率:75% Return measures, properties of returns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 Higher correlations will produce less diversification benefits provided that the other components of the portfolio standard deviation do not change (i.e., the weights and standard deviations of the individual assets). 问: 1.“If there is no change in the proportion of each asset held in the portfolio or the expected standard deviation of the individual assets .”这里用的是or,是否能理解为 权重和标准差都保持不变? 2.market decline是干扰项吗?没用影响?
查看试题 已回答15.单选题 已收藏 标记 纠错 Compared to investing in only one asset type, the portfolio of a risk–free asset and a risky asset has a better risk–return trade–off because the correlation between the risk–free asset and the risky asset is equal to A 0.0 B 1.0 C -1.0 查看解析 上一题 下一题 正确答案A 您的答案A本题平均正确率:70% Return measures, properties of returns难度:一般 推荐: 答案解析 portfolio of the risk–free asset and a risky asset or a portfolio of risky assets can result in a better risk–return trade–off than an investment in only one type of an asset, because the risk–free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset. 请问: 1.“because the risk–free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset.”这里的risky as set是EF上的任意一个点,还是整个坐标系内的任意一点? 2.这个结论 即:Rf与任意一点的相关系数为0 ,可否解释一下(用图或者用公式) PS:请按问题顺序回答 谢谢
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