陈同学2024-09-22 18:17:16
原版书课后题:The most appropriate risk attribution approach for the fixed-income manager is to:A. decompose historical returns into a top-down factor framework.B. evaluate the marginal contribution to total risk for each position. C. attribute tracking risk to relative allocation and selection decisions. 我选的是A,因为文章中提到“manager has strong views about the effects of macroeconomic factors on credit markets and follows a top-down investment process.” 既有factor还有topdown 所以这道题为什么还要选 相对指标?
回答(1)
开开2024-09-27 09:30:27
同学你好,这题确实有些问题的,首先top down是原文里面写的,说这个fixed-income manager follows a top-down investment process. 但是他是relative还是absolute的,这个很难看出来。但是协会又没有勘误,因此我们只能默认它是对的。有一个比较间接的理由是表格中的数据中有capture ratio,而capture ratio必须要有benchmark才能计算。但这个理由确实比较强行。
如果答疑对你有帮助,【请采纳】哟~。加油,祝你顺利通过考试~
- 评论(0)
- 追问(0)


评论
0/1000
追答
0/1000
+上传图片