112025-06-26 18:02:42
one-year equity swap with quarterly payments to receive the return on a US stock index and pay a floating MRR interest rate. The current value of the US stock index is 925. 90 days later, the US stock index is at 905. 问:The equity swap cash flow for KPS at 90 days is closest to: Return on the equity index = (905 – 925)/925 = –0.021622 The first floating payment is made quarterly. we have (0.0142 × 90/360) = 0.003550. Cash flow from the swap = (–0.021622 – 0.00355) ×$100m 请问,为什么在结算日,PVfloating 不是等于1,即(1+f1)×B1', 而是用 t=0时刻的s1,(1+s1×days/year)?
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Essie2025-06-27 10:16:28
同学你好,因为浮动利率都是按年报的,只有浮动利率在每一个整年的息票充值日的时候,它的价值才是1。
比如站在今天,未来一年的利率是3%,那么浮动利率债券的coupon rate就是3%,coupon rate=discount rate,因此债券价值为1。
你上面这个题目是90天一结算,所以PV肯定不是1。需要将年化利率去年化,也就是你写的(1+s1×days/year)
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