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CFA一级
包含CFA一级传统在线课程、通关课程及试题相关提问答疑;
专场人数:6057提问数量:109067
我发现一个特诡异的事情,请问这个值是啥?在计算器是AOS正常模式,并全部清零下后。依次按下两个%数字相乘在加上一个%数字,在按下最后一个%后出现的数字是啥?比如:在计算器上依次按下:【5】【%】【*】【5】【%】【+】【5】【%】,在按等于号之前出现了一个数字0.0013,之后按【=】才出正确答案。按下最后一个【%】后,屏幕出现的数字是啥?
Which of the following situation will most likely result in a decrease in a valuation allowance for a deferred tax asset under U.S. GAAP? If: A Tax rates reduce. B The tax loss carry-forward period extends over a period of time C Interest rates decrease 这道题在考察什么?
查看试题 已回答Cinnamon, Inc. recorded a total deferred tax asset in 2007 of $12,301, offset by a $12,301 valuation allowance. Cinnamon most likely: A fully utilized the deferred tax asset in 2007. B has an equal amount of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liabilities. C expects not to earn any taxable income before the deferred tax asset expires. 这道题考什么呢,有点不明所以,
查看试题 已回答An analyst is comparing a firm to its competitors. The firm has a deferred tax liability that results from accelerated depreciation for tax purposes. The firm is expected to continue to grow in the foreseeable future. How should the liability be treated for analysis purposes? A It should be treated as equity at its full value. B It should be treated as a liability at its full value. C The present value should be treated as a liability with the remainder being treated as equity. 从题干怎么能看出他的dtl不会回转呢?如果没有提及,分析师这样对待是否主观了
查看试题 已回答A company purchased fixed asset for ¥500,000 on 1 January 2001. It’s useful life is 10 years. Use a straight-line method for accounting purposes, but for tax purposes it is using the declining balance method at a rate of 20%. Given a tax rate of 30%, the deferred tax liability at the end of 2003 is closest to: A ¥9,820. B ¥4,880. C ¥28,200. 这题是用cv-tb的绝对值*30%这个公式吗? 答案那个50*0.8*0.8*0.8是什么鬼?
查看试题 已回答精品问答
- m上升 EAR为什么上升 以及为什么又不变
- 前面在讲Aggregate demand curve的时候说,价格上涨使消费下降,而这里又说价格下降消费变少,为什么存在矛盾?
- 对于老师讲的这部分,1. 我理解FRA的Payoff始终等于利率期货的Payoff部分进行折现(除以1个大于1的数),也就是说,FRA的Payoff的变动幅度 应该 始终小于利率期货的变动幅度。2. 至于是涨多跌少,还是涨少跌多,其实MRR在分母上,可以根据1/x的曲线特点来理解,无非就是MRR上升时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度 小于 MRR下降时1/(1+MRR)的变动幅度,所以如果MRR上升时,Payoff是上升的,那么就是涨少跌多,如果MRR上升时,Payoff是下降的,那就是涨多跌少。以上2点,我理解的对吗?
- 不懂这里为什么新固定利息与老固定利息的差值折现到1时刻就是1时刻的value,为什么只考虑下半边支出的部分,不考虑付息收到的部分
- 如果IC和CAL线的切点在后半段呢,就是比和有效前沿的切点更高呢,不是后面无风险资产权重为0吗,为什么说一定有无风险资产呢
- 为什么不是C选项呢?credit risk是由于借款人违约未能偿还而使债权人遭受损失的风险;solvency risk是由于自己财务状况不佳而无法偿还到期债务的风险。二者紧密相连
- 为什么TC 的切点对应是AVC的最低点?
- 为什么可以把TR TC同时体现在纵轴?







