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张同学2020-02-15 09:19:49

第十题的预期收益期望为19.7%,所以speculative的比重越大越好,这么做应该比答案简单点,对不对?

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Peter F2020-02-15 18:20:40

同学,你好:请问是哪个 reading 的 第 10 题的?

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reading7
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同学,你好:这是一道简答题,最后的结论是 Allocation 1 has a 90% chance of exceeding the aspirational level of $1,050,000, however, whereas Allocation 2 has only a 30% chance of exceeding it.为什么得出这个结论,需要过程的,过程如下,
追答
Given the expected returns for the riskless and speculative layers, Allocation 1 will result in the following amounts: 10% chance: (59% × $1,000,000) × 1.005 + (41% × $1,000,000) × (1 – 0.25) = $900,450 60% chance: (59% × $1,000,000) × 1.005 + (41% × $1,000,000) × (1.12) = $1,052,150 30% chance: (59% × $1,000,000) × 1.005 + (41% × $1,000,000) × (1.50) = $1,207,950.
追答
Given the expected returns for the riskless and speculative layers, Allocation 2 will result in the following amounts: 10% chance: (90% × $1,000,000) × 1.005 + (10% × $1,000,000) × (1 – 0.25) = $979,500 60% chance: (90% × $1,000,000) × 1.005 + (10% × $1,000,000) × (1.12) = $1,016,500 30% chance: (90% × $1,000,000) × 1.005 + (10% × $1,000,000) × (1.50) = $1,054,500 过程 + 结论 的回答才比较合适和完整。

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